220-1201 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026)

A Layer 3 switch is the optimal solution when multiple VLANs must intercommunicate while maintaining high performance and minimal hardware complexity. CompTIA A+ explains that Layer 3 switches combine the capabilities of switching (Layer 2) and routing (Layer 3), allowing VLAN traffic to be routed internally at wire speed, without the latency typically associated with traditional routers.

Layer 3 switches use hardware-based routing, meaning they forward inter-VLAN traffic using ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits). This allows them to achieve extremely fast throughput, ideal for environments like computer training institutes where multiple VLANs may be used for student labs, instructor networks, and administrative traffic.

A router (D) can route between VLANs but introduces more latency due to software-based routing and typically requires additional equipment. A Web application firewall (A) and DDoS appliance (B) are security devices unrelated to internal VLAN communication.

Because the institute requires minimal hardware and high-speed inter-VLAN communication, the Layer 3 switch is the only CompTIA-supported device that meets both requirements simultaneously.

In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access, DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.

Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step” when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a hardwired connection—suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.

Among the listed choices, a smaller form factor is the advantage associated with NVMe solid-state drives. Many client NVMe drives use the compact M.2 form factor and connect directly to the motherboard, eliminating the larger drive enclosure and separate data and power cables commonly required by traditional 2.5-inch or 3.5-inch hard disk drives. NVMe drives also contain no mechanical platters, spindle motors, or moving read/write heads. SATA is not an advantage of NVMe because NVMe normally communicates through PCI Express rather than the SATA interface. HDDs are often available in larger capacities at lower prices, so larger available capacity is not generally an NVMe advantage. Spindle speed applies only to mechanical hard drives; SSDs do not contain a spindle. Technically, NVMe describes a storage communication protocol, but compact M.2 NVMe devices are the intended comparison in this question.

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The correct answer is D. Injector.

Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows network cables to carry electrical power to devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones, eliminating the need for separate power supplies. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking, PoE can be implemented in the following ways:

PoE-enabled switches: Switches that can supply power directly over the Ethernet ports.

PoE injectors: Devices that add power to an existing Ethernet connection when the switch or router does not provide PoE.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Modem: A modem connects a network to the Internet but does not provide PoE functionality.

B. Range extender: Extends the range of a wireless network; does not supply power over Ethernet.

C. Media converter: Converts one type of network media to another (e.g., fiber to copper) but does not implement PoE.

Therefore, when a switch does not natively provide PoE, a PoE injector is the standard solution to add power to the Ethernet line.

The correct answer is D. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network).

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:

A WLAN is a wireless network that covers a limited area such as an office, building, or campus.

Using a heat map helps administrators determine optimal placement of access points, identify areas of weak signal, and plan coverage for employees’ devices.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. SAN (Storage Area Network): Connects storage devices over a network; not used for wireless coverage.

B. PAN (Personal Area Network): Covers a very small area, such as a single person’s devices (Bluetooth, USB, etc.), not a whole office.

C. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): Covers a city or large geographic area; too large for a floor plan.

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is the correct solution because it logically separates devices into different broadcast domains on the same physical switching infrastructure. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201), VLANs are described as a way to segment a network for security, performance, and management—for example, isolating departments like Accounting and Customer Service so their traffic is separated. Devices assigned to different VLANs cannot communicate directly at Layer 2; communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device (such as a router or a Layer 3 switch) using inter-VLAN routing and appropriate access control. This effectively prevents unnecessary broadcast traffic from crossing department boundaries and helps enforce separation policies.

A VPN is used to create an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network (commonly for remote access or site-to-site connectivity), not for internal departmental segmentation. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses and does not isolate networks. DHCP automatically assigns IP configuration (IP address, gateway, DNS servers), but it does not provide segmentation by itself. Therefore, implementing VLANs is the best way to separate the two departments’ networks.

To ensure seamless connectivity during (and after) migrating an application server, the best DNS approach in CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) terms is to use a CNAME (Canonical Name) record, which creates an alias from one hostname to another. Instead of users connecting directly to a server’s changing hostname, they connect to a consistent service name (for example, app.company.com). That name can be configured as a CNAME pointing to the current host (such as server1.company.com). When the application is moved to a new server, the technician updates what the alias ultimately resolves to (or updates the target host’s A/AAAA record), and clients continue using the same familiar application URL/name—minimizing disruption and avoiding the need to reconfigure endpoints across devices.

The other record types are not designed for this purpose. TXT records store text-based information (often verification or policy data). SPF and DKIM are email authentication-related mechanisms (typically implemented via TXT records) used to validate authorized mail senders and message integrity—not application server migration. Because the goal is maintaining a stable name for a service while the underlying host changes, CNAME is the correct record type.

The best answer provided is A, although it is important to note that the question is somewhat misleading because it asks about motherboard selection but provides mostly incorrect or irrelevant motherboard-related options.

For high-performance workloads such as video editing and virtual reality (VR) using an Intel Core i9 processor and multiple graphics cards (multi-GPU setup), system design considerations include high power consumption and significant heat output. In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under hardware planning and troubleshooting, high-performance CPUs and multiple GPUs require adequate thermal management solutions, including advanced cooling systems (air or liquid cooling) to ensure system stability and prevent thermal throttling.

Why A is the best answer:

High-end CPUs like Intel Core i9 and multiple GPUs generate substantial heat.

Proper cooling is essential for maintaining performance under sustained load (video rendering, VR workloads).

While not strictly a motherboard feature, cooling is a critical system requirement for such a build.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Use DDR3 RAM for increased compatibility

Incorrect because modern Intel Core i9 platforms use DDR4 or DDR5, not DDR3, which is obsolete and incompatible with current high-performance motherboards.

C. Verify there are two PCIe x1 slots for additional devices

Incorrect because PCIe x1 slots are used for low-bandwidth devices (sound cards, network cards), not graphics cards.

Multiple GPUs require PCIe x16 slots, not x1.

D. Select a motherboard with integrated graphics to support video output

Incorrect because high-performance systems with discrete GPUs rely on those GPUs for rendering. Integrated graphics are unnecessary and sometimes disabled when a dedicated GPU is installed.

Exam Insight (CompTIA A+ perspective):

In real-world A+ Core 1 scenarios, the correct motherboard selection for this requirement would focus on:

Multiple PCIe x16 slots (for multi-GPU support)

Compatible socket for Intel Core i9

Support for modern RAM (DDR4/DDR5)

Adequate chipset and power delivery (VRM design)

Proper cooling solution for thermal management

However, since those correct motherboard specifications are not provided in the options, A is the only viable system-level requirement relevant to stability under high-performance load.