220-1201 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026)

A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access points that are far from power outlets.

Among the listed choices, a smaller form factor is the advantage associated with NVMe solid-state drives. Many client NVMe drives use the compact M.2 form factor and connect directly to the motherboard, eliminating the larger drive enclosure and separate data and power cables commonly required by traditional 2.5-inch or 3.5-inch hard disk drives. NVMe drives also contain no mechanical platters, spindle motors, or moving read/write heads. SATA is not an advantage of NVMe because NVMe normally communicates through PCI Express rather than the SATA interface. HDDs are often available in larger capacities at lower prices, so larger available capacity is not generally an NVMe advantage. Spindle speed applies only to mechanical hard drives; SSDs do not contain a spindle. Technically, NVMe describes a storage communication protocol, but compact M.2 NVMe devices are the intended comparison in this question.

The best answer is E. Subnet mask. With the current subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s IP address 192.168.1.10 is on the 192.168.1.0/24 network, while the default gateway 192.168.2.1 is on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. A host normally needs its default gateway to be reachable on the same local network. The Mike Meyers material explains that the subnet mask identifies the network ID and host ID, and every computer on a single LAN must have the same network ID. With 255.255.255.0, the first three octets define the network, so 192.168.1.x and 192.168.2.x are different networks. The NOC verified that the gateway value itself is correct, so changing the gateway would conflict with the verified next hop. DNS settings would affect name resolution, not access to all local and remote resources. Lease time and firewall rules are not indicated by the IP information. The subnet mask must be changed so the client and gateway are in the same local IP network.

To verify the source of printer misuse, the administrator needs detailed records showing who performed specific actions and when. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer management and security objectives, audit logs provide a historical record of printer activity, including user IDs, timestamps, document names, and print volumes. These logs allow administrators to trace printer usage back to a specific user or device, making them the most effective tool for investigating misuse.

Secure printing requires users to authenticate at the printer before jobs are released, which helps prevent unauthorized access but does not provide historical evidence of past misuse. A print counter tracks the total number of pages printed but does not identify individual users or specific print jobs. User authentication ensures that only authorized users can access the printer, but by itself it does not provide detailed usage tracking unless combined with logging.

CompTIA emphasizes audit logging as a critical component of accountability and security across systems, including printers. When investigating policy violations or misuse, audit logs are the primary source of verifiable evidence.

D. Crimper:

A crimper is used to terminate an RJ45 cable properly by attaching the connector to the twisted-pair wires.

If the termination is not done correctly, the connection will be intermittent or fail entirely.

Incorrect Options:

A. Toner probe: Used to locate cables or trace their path, not for terminating RJ45 connectors.

B. Cable tester: Useful for testing connectivity but does not fix termination issues.

C. Punchdown: Used to connect wires to a patch panel or keystone jack, not for RJ45 connectors.

Key Takeaway: A crimper is the proper tool for fixing an improperly terminated RJ45 connection.

The correct answer is D. Restart the device.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:

Warning messages like this can be caused by malicious pop-ups or temporary software glitches. Restarting the device is the safest and quickest first step to clear temporary processes, refresh the system, and remove transient malware or pop-up overlays.

This approach addresses the issue without risking data loss or unnecessary downtime.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Force close all running applications: May help if a specific app is causing the pop-up, but restarting achieves this more reliably and fully resets background processes.

B. Replace the tablet with a newer device: Unnecessary and costly for a potentially temporary software issue.

C. Reset the device to default settings: This is a last-resort action, as it erases personal data and settings; it is not the first step.

The correct answer is B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor.

In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives, virtualization is a key concept for maintaining compatibility with legacy systems. A Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an existing operating system and allows users to run a virtual machine (VM) with an older OS.

This solution is ideal because:

It allows the legacy application to run in its required OS environment.

It avoids replacing the application (which could cause data loss or compatibility issues).

It is cost-effective, as it uses existing hardware.

It minimizes user disruption, since users can continue using the application within a VM.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor

A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor is more complex, costly, and disruptive. It typically requires dedicating hardware and is not ideal for a single department use case.

C. Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data

Although this may be a long-term solution, it involves higher cost, potential data loss, retraining, and disruption.

D. Uploading the database to a private cloud

This does not solve the compatibility issue of the legacy application with the new OS.

Final Answer: B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor

The correct answer is B. Switches connect devices within a network; routers connect networks.

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 networking objectives:

Switches operate at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) and sometimes Layer 3, connecting multiple devices within the same local area network (LAN). They manage data traffic between devices by using MAC addresses to forward frames only to the intended recipient.

Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3) and connect different networks together, such as connecting a LAN to the internet. They use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets between networks.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Routers are programmable; switches are not programmable: Both devices can have programmable configurations in enterprise environments, so this is not a defining difference.

C. Switches are programmable; routers are not programmable: Same reasoning as above; not accurate.

D. Routers connect devices within a network; switches connect networks: This reverses the actual roles and is incorrect.