220-1201 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026)

The correct answers are E. NFC and F. Location services.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:

NFC (Near-Field Communication): Enables the device to communicate with contactless payment terminals, which is essential for detecting nearby stores that accept contactless payments.

Location services: Allows the application to determine the user’s geographic location so it can provide notifications only when the user is near a participating store.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. MDM (Mobile Device Management): Manages device policies but does not enable location-based notifications or contactless payments.

B. Contact syncing: Synchronizes contacts; unrelated to payment notifications.

C. Bluetooth: Can be used for some proximity services, but NFC is required for contactless payment detection.

D. Hotspot: Provides internet access; not required for proximity detection in this context.

The correct answer is B. Header pinouts.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware:

Header pinouts on a motherboard are designated connectors for internal components such as USB ports, audio connectors, and front panel buttons/LEDs.

When adding additional internal USB ports, a technician typically connects them to the motherboard’s USB header pinouts. These headers provide the necessary data and power connections to enable USB functionality for front-panel or expansion USB ports.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. TPM (Trusted Platform Module): Used for hardware-based security functions like encryption, not USB connectivity.

C. M.2 connector: Used primarily for SSDs and other small-form-factor expansion devices, not standard USB ports.

D. Expansion slots: Typically PCIe or PCI slots are used for expansion cards such as GPUs, network cards, or USB controller cards, but not for connecting internal USB headers directly.

The correct answer is A. Containers.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud/Virtualization Concepts:

Containers provide lightweight, portable environments that package applications and their dependencies, allowing them to run consistently across multiple environments.

Containers are ideal for development teams because they require minimal underlying infrastructure, can be quickly deployed or destroyed, and isolate applications from the host system, making it easier to manage multiple applications simultaneously.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Provides virtualized hardware over the cloud but is more general-purpose; it includes virtual machines, storage, and networking, not minimal isolated application environments.

C. SaaS (Software as a Service): Provides fully managed software to end-users; not intended for deploying custom web applications by a development team.

D. Desktop virtualization: Provides virtual desktop environments to users; it does not provide a minimal, disposable platform for web application development.

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A screenshot of a network settings AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

The correct answer is D. RAID 10 (also called RAID 1+0).

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Storage:

RAID 10 combines the mirroring of RAID 1 with the striping of RAID 0. This provides both high data availability (because each drive has a mirror) and improved performance (because data is striped across multiple disks).

RAID 10 requires a minimum of four drives and is suitable for servers that handle high I/O workloads while maintaining redundancy.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. RAID 1: Provides mirroring for redundancy but does not improve performance as effectively as RAID 10.

B. RAID 0: Provides striping for performance but has no redundancy; a single drive failure results in data loss.

C. RAID 5: Provides parity and can tolerate one drive failure with decent read performance, but write performance is lower than RAID 10 and rebuilds can impact system performance under heavy load.

The correct answer is A. Better compatibility.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Software Troubleshooting and Virtualization:

Application virtualization allows applications to run in an isolated environment on a client device without being installed directly on the operating system.

This improves compatibility, as applications can operate regardless of OS differences, avoiding conflicts with other installed applications or system configurations.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Reduced network latency: Application virtualization does not inherently reduce network latency; network performance depends on connectivity.

C. Secure telnet access: Telnet is unrelated to application virtualization.

D. Metered utilization: Metering refers to cloud service usage or billing, not a benefit of application virtualization itself.

For the highest possible stability, the best power-supply choice is a redundant power supply. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware concepts, redundant PSUs are used in systems where uptime and reliability are critical. A redundant PSU configuration typically includes two power supply units operating together (often in a hot-swappable bay). If one PSU fails, the other continues supplying power, allowing the workstation to remain operational and preventing unexpected shutdowns that could interrupt CAD work or corrupt data. This directly matches the requirement for maximum stability.

A UPS improves resilience to power loss and brownouts by providing battery backup and line conditioning, but it is not a power supply type and doesn’t protect against the PSU itself failing. A surge protector helps guard against voltage spikes, but it also does not ensure system operation if the PSU fails. A modular PSU mainly improves cable management and airflow by allowing detachable cables; it can be convenient and neat, but it does not inherently increase stability compared with redundancy. Therefore, the most stability-focused PSU option is Redundant.

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is the correct solution because it logically separates devices into different broadcast domains on the same physical switching infrastructure. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201), VLANs are described as a way to segment a network for security, performance, and management—for example, isolating departments like Accounting and Customer Service so their traffic is separated. Devices assigned to different VLANs cannot communicate directly at Layer 2; communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device (such as a router or a Layer 3 switch) using inter-VLAN routing and appropriate access control. This effectively prevents unnecessary broadcast traffic from crossing department boundaries and helps enforce separation policies.

A VPN is used to create an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network (commonly for remote access or site-to-site connectivity), not for internal departmental segmentation. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses and does not isolate networks. DHCP automatically assigns IP configuration (IP address, gateway, DNS servers), but it does not provide segmentation by itself. Therefore, implementing VLANs is the best way to separate the two departments’ networks.