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350-401 Exam Dumps - Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR)

Question # 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?

A.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

B.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

C.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

D.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

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Question # 5

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is the neighboring router of R1. R2 receives an advertisement for network 192 168.10.50/32. Which configuration should be applied for the subnet to be advertised with the original /24 netmask?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 6

A network engineer must configure a router to send logging messages to a syslog server based on these requirements:

    uses syslog IP address: 10.10.10.1

    uses a reliable protocol

    must not use any well-known TCP/UDP ports

Which configuration must be used?

A.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport tcp port 1024

B.

logging origin-id 10.10.10.1

C.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1023

D.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1024

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Question # 7

A client device roams between wireless LAN controllers that are mobility peers, Both controllers have dynamic interface on the same client VLAN which type of roam is described?

A.

intra-VLAN

B.

inter-controller

C.

intra-controller

D.

inter-subnet

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Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit:

An engineer configures VRRP and issues the show commands to verify operation. What does the engineer confirm about VRRP group 1 from the output?

A.

There is no route to 10.10.1.1/32 in R2’s routing table

B.

If R1 reboots, R2 becomes the master virtual router until R2 reboots

C.

Communication between VRRP members is encrypted using MD5

D.

R1 is primary if 10.10.1.1/32 is in its routing table

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Question # 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line, but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 10

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two.)

A.

advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes

B.

configuration of control and data policies

C.

gathering of underlay infrastructure data

D.

delivery of crypto keys

E.

segmentation and differentiation of traffic

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Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit.

CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 13

What is a characteristic of Cisco StackWise technology?

A.

It uses proprietary cabling

B.

It supports devices that are geographically separated

C.

lt combines exactly two devices

D.

It is supported on the Cisco 4500 series.

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Question # 14

A customer requests a design that includes GLBP as the FHRP The network architect discovers that the members of the GLBP group have different throughput capabilities Which GLBP load balancing method supports this environment?

A.

host dependent

B.

least connection

C.

round robin

D.

weighted

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Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value. Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

A.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16

B.

DSW2(config)#interface gi1/3

C.

DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0

D.

DSW1(config) #interface gi1/3

E.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128

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Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

A.

The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate

B.

The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate

C.

The connection is using an unsupported protocol

D.

The connection is using an unsupported browser

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Question # 17

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure and validate a CoPP policy that allows the network management server to monitor router R1 via SNMP while protecting the control plane. Which two commands or command sets must be used? (Choose two.)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

F.

Option F

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Question # 18

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

A.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

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Question # 19

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A.

security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B.

security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C.

security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D.

security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

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Question # 20

Why would an engineer use YANG?

A.

to transport data between a controller and a network device

B.

to access data using SNMP

C.

to model data for NETCONF

D.

to translate JSON into an equivalent XML syntax

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Question # 21

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

A.

The WLC is running a different software version.

B.

The API is joining a primed WLC

C.

The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3.

D.

The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2.

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Question # 22

What occurs when a high bandwidth multicast stream is sent over an MVPN using Cisco hardware?

A.

The traffic uses the default MDT to transmit the data only if it isa (S,G) multicast route entry

B.

A data MDT is created to if it is a (*, G) multicast route entries

C.

A data and default MDT are created to flood the multicast stream out of all PIM-SM neighbors.

D.

A data MDT is created to allow for the best transmission through the core for (S, G) multicast route entries.

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Question # 23

What NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?

A.

Stratum 0

B.

Stratum 1

C.

Stratum 14

D.

Stratum 15

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Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit.

VPN-A sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-B and receives traffic only from VPN-C VPN-B sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-C and receives traffic only from VPN-A Which configuration is applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 25

When is the Design workflow used In Cisco DNA Center?

A.

in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

B.

in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data

C.

in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network

D.

in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices

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Question # 26

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

A.

HTTP return codes

B.

rpc statements

C.

JSON schema

D.

container statements

E.

XML schema

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Question # 27

Which OSPF networks types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

A.

broadcast to nonbroadcast

B.

point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C.

broadcast to point-to-point

D.

point-to-multipoint to broadcast

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Question # 28

What is required for a virtual machine to run?

A.

a Type 1 hypervisor and a host operating system

B.

a hypervisor and physical server hardware

C.

only a Type 1 hypervisor

D.

only a Type 2 hypervisor

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Question # 29

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how Is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

A.

with IP SLA

B.

ARP probing

C.

using BFD

D.

with OMP

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Question # 30

An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on then OLTIs?

A.

over the DS

B.

adaptive R

C.

802.11V

D.

802.11k

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a technician adds the monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 223 command1?

A.

The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223.

B.

RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223

C.

An error is flagged for configuring two destinations.

D.

RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223.

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Question # 32

A customer wants to provide wireless access to contractors using a guest portal on Cisco ISE. The portal Is also used by employees A solution is implemented, but contractors receive a certificate error when they attempt to access the portal Employees can access the portal without any errors. Which change must be implemented to allow the contractors and employees to access the portal?

A.

Install a trusted third-party certificate on the Cisco ISE.

B.

Install an Internal CA signed certificate on the contractor devices

C.

Install an internal CA signed certificate on the Cisco ISE

D.

install a trusted third-party certificate on the contractor devices.

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Question # 33

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer reconfigures the pot-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log.

Which command set resolves this error?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

A.

Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B.

Change the remote-as number for 192 168.100.11.

C.

Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D.

Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

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Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineers reaching network 172 16 10 0/24 via the R1-R2-R4 path. Which configuration forces the traffic to take a path of R1-R3-R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 36

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be applied to Router 1 to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state?

A.

Routed (config if funnel mode gre multipoint

B.

Router1(config-if)&tunnel source Loopback0

C.

Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1

D.

Router1 (config)#interface tunnel0

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Question # 37

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?

A.

(config-if)#tunnel destination

B.

(config-if)#keepalive

C.

(config-if)#ip mtu

D.

(config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss

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Question # 38

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit. Which step reduces the amount of data that NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface’s configuration?

A.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument

B.

Use the txml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface’s configuration

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface’s configuration

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Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102 0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

A.

192.168.101.18

B.

192.168.101.6

C.

192.168.101.10

D.

192.168.101.14

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Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit

Communication between London and New York is down Which to resolve this issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 41

Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?

A.

ETR

B.

MR

C.

ITR

D.

MS

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Question # 42

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 43

Based on the router's API output in JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the "hostname" key?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Question # 44

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

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Question # 45

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 lo allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

A.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 extendable

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 extendable

B.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80

C.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 209.165.201.1 8080

D.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 no-alias

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 no-alias

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Question # 46

How is a data modeling language used?

A.

To enable data lo be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

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Question # 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0724 network?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 48

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right.

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Question # 49

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

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Question # 50

Refer to the exhibit.

After the code is run on a Cisco IOS-XE router, the response code is 204.

What is the result of the script?

A.

The configuration fails because another interface is already configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24.

B.

The configuration fails because interface GigabitEthernet2 is missing on the target device.

C.

The configuration is successfully sent to the device in cleartext.

D.

Interface GigabitEthernet2 is configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24

Full Access
Question # 51

Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?

A.

Omnidirectional

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

Yagi

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Question # 52

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 32 use?

A.

00:5e:0c:07:ac:20

B.

04:18:20:83:2e:32

C.

05:5e:5c:ac:0c:32

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:20

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the router to use the ISE-Servers group for authentication. If both ISE servers are unavailable, the local username database must be used. If no usernames are defined in the configuration, then the enable password must be the last resort to log in. Which configuration must be applied to achieve this result?

A.

aaa authentication login default group ISE-Servers local enable

B.

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

C.

aaa authorization exec default group ISE-Servers local enable

D.

aaa authentication login error-enable

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

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Question # 54

Which two features does the Cisco SD-Access architecture add to a traditional campus network? (Choose two.)

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

private VLANs

C.

SD-WAN

D.

modular QoS

E.

identity services

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Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space the public Interface address of 209 165 201.1 must be usedfor all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 56

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq S deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.)

A.

distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process

B.

Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32

C.

ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32

D.

distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process

E.

distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process

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Question # 57

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer tries to log in to router R1. Which configuration enables a successful login?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 59

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 60

Which two solutions are used for backing up a Cisco DNA Center Assurance database? (Choose two)

A.

NFS share

B.

non-linux server

C.

local server

D.

remote server

E.

bare metal server

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Question # 61

What is one main REST security design principle?

A.

separation of privilege

B.

password hashing

C.

confidential algorithms

D.

OAuth

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Question # 62

Drag and drop the Cisco SD-Access solution areas from the left onto the protocols they use on the right.

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Question # 63

Drag anti drop the characteristics from the ten onto the configuration models on the right.

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Question # 64

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

A.

NSF/NSR

B.

SSO

C.

HSRP

D.

VRRP

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Question # 65

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A.

a predetermined string that is passed from client to server

B.

a one-time encrypted token

C.

a username that is stored in the local router database

D.

a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

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Question # 66

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

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Question # 67

Which benefit is provided by the Cisco DNA Center telemetry feature?

A.

provides improved network security

B.

inventories network devices

C.

aids In the deployment network configurations

D.

improves the user experience

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Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be applied on R1 to establish a BGP neighborship with R2 and to allow communication from R1 to reach the networks?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 69

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 70

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

A.

VNI

B.

GRE

C.

VTEP

D.

EVPN

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Question # 71

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator troubleshoots an EtherChannel that keeps moving to err-disabled. Which two actions must be taken to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A.

Reload the switch to force EtherChannel renegotiation

B.

Ensure that interfaces Gi1/0/2 and Gi1/0/3 connect to the same neighboring switch.

C.

Ensure that the switchport parameters of Port channel1 match the parameters of the port channel on the neighbor switch

D.

Ensure that the corresponding port channel interface on the neighbor switch is named Port-channel1.

E.

Ensure that the neighbor interfaces of Gi1/0/2 and Gi/0/3 are configured as members of the same EtherChannel

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Question # 72

What is a characteristics of a vSwitch?

A.

supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch

B.

enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server

C.

has higher performance than a hardware switch

D.

operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts

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Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block Telnet traffic from hosts in the range of 10.100 2.248 to 10.100.2 255 to the network 10.100.3.0 and permit everything else. Which configuration must the engineer apply'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 74

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'

B.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log directly to console'

C.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'

D.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'

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Question # 75

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

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Question # 76

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

A.

EIRP

B.

mW

C.

dBm

D.

dBi

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Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures routing between all routers and must build a configuration to connect R1 to R3 via a GRE tunnel Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Question # 78

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must set up connectivity between a campus aggregation layer and a branch office access layer. The engineer uses dynamic trunking protocol to establish this connection, however, management traffic on VLAN1 is not passing. Which action resolves the issue and allow communication for all configured VLANs?

A.

Allow all VLANs on the trunk links

B.

Disable Spanning Tree for the native VLAN.

C.

Configure the correct native VLAN on the remote interface

D.

Change both interfaces to access ports.

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Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

A.

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

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Question # 80

A system must validate access rights to all its resources and must not rely on a cached permission matrix. If the access level to a given resource is revoked but is not reflected in the permission matrix, the security is violated. Which term refers to this REST security design principle?

A.

economy of mechanism

B.

complete mediation

C.

separation of privilege

D.

least common mechanism

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Question # 81

Refer the exhibit.

Which configuration elects SW4 as the root bridge for VLAN 1 and puts G0/2 on SW2 into a blocking state?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 82

What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data?

A.

{'Name'';''Bob johnon';''Age': Sevenfive,''Alive'': true,''FavoriteFoods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

B.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age': 75 ''Alive'': true,''Favorite Foods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

C.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age: 75,''Alive: true, FavoriteFoods;[Cereal, Mustard';''Onions}}

D.

{'Name'': 'Bob johnon','Age': 75,'Alive': true,''FavoriteFoods': 'Cereal';'Mustard','Onions'}}

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Question # 83

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

A.

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

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Question # 84

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 85

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

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Question # 86
A.

S2 is configured as LACP. Change the channel group mode to passive

B.

S2 is configured with PAgP. Change the channel group mode to active.

C.

S1 is configured with LACP. Change the channel group mode to on

D.

S1 is configured as PAgP. Change the channel group mode to desirable

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Question # 87

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 14 use?

A.

04.16.19.09.4c.0e

B.

00:05:5e:19:0c:14

C.

00:05:0c:07:ac:14

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:0e

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Question # 88

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

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Question # 89

Which two Cisco SD-Access components provide communication between traditional network elements and controller layer? (choose two)

A.

network data platform

B.

network underlay

C.

fabric overlay

D.

network control platform

E.

partner ecosystem

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Question # 90

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 91

If the maximum power level assignment for global TPC 802.11a/n/ac is configured to 10 dBm, which power level effectively doubles the transmit power?

A.

13dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17dBm

D.

20 dBm

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Question # 92

Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO?

A.

IP first-hop redundancy

B.

communication between different nodes for cluster setup

C.

physical link redundancy

D.

minimal network downtime following an RP switchover

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Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

A.

ip http port 8888

B.

restconf port 8888

C.

ip http restconf port 8888

D.

restconf http port 8888

Full Access
Question # 95

What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

JWT

D.

TLS

Full Access
Question # 96

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure an ERSPAN session with the remote end of the session 10.10.0.1. Which commands must be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be added to enable GigabitEthemet 0/1 to participate in OSPF?

A.

SF_router (config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B.

SF_rouier (conng)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

C.

SF_router (conflg-routerp) network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

D.

SF_rouler (contlg-rouler)# network 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

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Question # 98

How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?

A.

It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.

B.

It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.

C.

It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.

D.

It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.

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Question # 99

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

B.

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

C.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

D.

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

E.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

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Question # 100

Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?

A.

provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration

B.

performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks

C.

used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches

D.

in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node

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Question # 101

Simulation 04

ConfigureOSPF on both routers according to the topology to achieve these goals:

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Question # 102

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables fallback to local authentication and authorization when no TACACS+ server is available?

A.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default local

B.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local

C.

Router(config)# aaa fallback local

D.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login FALLBACK local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec FALLBACK local

Full Access
Question # 103

How do cloud deployments compare to on-premises deployments?

A.

Cloud deployments provide a better user experience across world regions, whereas on-premises deployments depend upon region-specific conditions

B.

Cloud deployments are inherently unsecure. whereas a secure architecture is mandatory for on-premises deployments.

C.

Cloud deployments mandate a secure architecture, whereas on-premises deployments are inherently unsecure.

D.

Cloud deployments must include automation infrastructure, whereas on-premises deployments often lack the ability for automation.

Full Access
Question # 104

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must configure router B to allow traffic only from network 10.1002.0 to networks outside of router 0. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 105

Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

A.

vBond

B.

cSmart

C.

vManage

D.

WAN Edge

Full Access
Question # 106

When using BFD in a network design, which consideration must be made?

A.

BFD is used with first hop routing protocols to provide subsecond convergence.

B.

BFD is more CPU-intensive than using reduced hold timers with routing protocols.

C.

BFD is used with dynamic routing protocols to provide subsecond convergence.

D.

BFD is used with NSF and graceful to provide subsecond convergence.

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Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit.

A company has an internal wireless network with a hidden SSID and RADIUS-based client authentication for increased security. An employee attempts to manually add the company network to a laptop, but the laptop does not attempt to connect to the network. The regulatory domains of the access points and the laptop are identical. Which action resolves this issue?

A.

Ensure that the "Connect even if this network is not broadcasting" option is selected.

B.

Limit the enabled wireless channels on the laptop to the maximum channel range that is supported by the access points.

C.

Change the security type to WPA2-Personal AES.

D.

Use the empty string as the hidden SSID network name.

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Question # 108

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

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Question # 109

A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet. Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?

A.

Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine

B.

Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.

C.

Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.

D.

Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.

Full Access
Question # 110

Refer to the exhibit Remote users cannot access the Internet but can upload files to the storage server Which configuration must be applied to allow Internet access?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 111

How do stratum levels relate to the distance from a time source?

A.

Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source.

B.

Stratum 15 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source

C.

Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source.

D.

Stratum 15 devices are an authoritative time source.

Full Access
Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures HSRP and enters theshow standbycommand. Which two facts about the network environment are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

A.

The local device has a higher priority selling than the active router

B.

The virtual IP address of the HSRP group is 10.1.1.1.

C.

If the local device fails to receive a hello from the active router for more than 5 seconds, it becomes the active router.

D.

The hello and hold timers are set to custom values.

E.

If a router with a higher IP address and same HSRP priority as the active router becomes available, that router becomes the new active router 5 seconds later.

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Question # 113

Which two new security capabilities are introduced by using a next-generation firewall at the Internet edge? (Choose two.)

A.

DVPN

B.

NAT

C.

stateful packet inspection

D.

application-level inspection

E.

integrated intrusion prevention

Full Access
Question # 114

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is reaching network 172.16.10.0/24 via the R1-R2-R4 path. Which configuration forces the traffic to fake a path of R1-R3-R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 115

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

A.

iPsec

B.

Basic Auth

C.

GRE

D.

OAuth 2.0

Full Access
Question # 116

How does Cisco Express Forwarding switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

A.

Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table.

B.

Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor.

C.

Cisco Express Forwarding swithing saves memory by storing adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory.

D.

Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses the MAC address table.

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Question # 117

Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to the correct description on the right.

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Question # 118

An engineer applies this configuration to router R1. How does R1 respond when the user ‘cisco’ logs in?

A.

It displays the startup config and then permits the user to execute commands

B.

It places the user into EXEC mode and permits the user to execute any command

C.

It displays the startup config and then terminates the session.

D.

It places the user into EXEC mode but permits the user to execute only the show startup-config command

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Question # 119

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing between SW1 and SW2. Which action fixes the issue?

A.

Configure LACP mode on S1 to passive.

B.

Configure switch port mode to ISL on S2.

C.

Configure PAgP mode on S1 to desirable.

D.

Configure LACP mode on S1 to active.

Full Access
Question # 120

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

A.

with the VLAN

B.

with the MAC address

C.

with the IP address

D.

with the security group tag

Full Access
Question # 121

Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet?

A.

ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload

B.

ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload

C.

ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload

D.

ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload

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Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is required to summarize the Area 2 networks that are advertised to Area 0?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 123

Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to store the changed interface configuration to a local JSON-formatted file?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must protect the CPU of the router from high rates of NTP, SNMP, and SSH traffic. Which two configurations must be applied to drop these types of traffic when it continuously exceeds 320 kbps? (Choose two)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 125

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must allow the FTP traffic from users on 172.16.1.0 /24 to 172.16.2.0 /24 and block all other traffic. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 126

A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received

What is the cause of this issue?

A.

The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.

B.

The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly

C.

The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.

D.

The firewall blocks UDP traffic

Full Access
Question # 127

Refer to the exhibit.

What is output by this code?

A.

8 7 6 5

B.

-4 -5 -6 -7

C.

-1 -2-3-4

D.

4 5 6 7

Full Access
Question # 128

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF?

A.

Postman

B.

requests

C.

nccllent

D.

cURL

Full Access
Question # 129

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

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Question # 130

When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?

A.

when a stack member fails

B.

when the stack primary is reset

C.

when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack

D.

when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value

Full Access
Question # 131

What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two.)

A.

The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices.

B.

Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node.

C.

Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node.

D.

The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

E.

The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

Full Access
Question # 132

What does a YANG model provide?

A.

standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols

B.

creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS

C.

user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations

D.

standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocols

Full Access
Question # 133

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEtherenet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.

Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

B.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4

C.

Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4

D.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6

E.

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

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Question # 134

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer builds an EEM script to apply an access list. Which statement must be added to complete the script?

A.

event none

B.

action 2.1 cli command "ip action 3.1 ell command 101''

C.

action 6.0 ell command ''ip access-list extended 101''

D.

action 6.0 cli command ''ip access-list extended 101"

Full Access
Question # 135

Refer to the exhibit.

What is achieved by the XML code?

A.

It reads the access list sequence numbers from the output of the show ip access-list extended flp command into a dictionary list.

B.

It displays the output of the show ip access-list extended flp command on the terminal screen

C.

It displays the access list sequence numbers from the output of the show Ip access-list extended flp command on the terminal screen

D.

It reads the output of the show ip access-list extended flp command into a dictionary list.

Full Access
Question # 136

Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

A.

Policing

B.

Marking

C.

Queueing

D.

Classification

Full Access
Question # 137

Why would a customer implement an on-premises solution instead of a cloud solution?

A.

On-premises Offers greater compliance for government regulations than cloud

B.

On-premises offers greater scalability than cloud.

C.

On-premises oilers shorter deployment time than cloud.

D.

On-premises is more secure man cloud.

Full Access
Question # 138

Which device, in a LISP routing architecture, receives and de-encapsulates LISP traffic for endpoints within a LISP-capable site?

A.

MR

B.

ETR

C.

OMS

D.

ITR

Full Access
Question # 139

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

A.

WPA2 Personal

B.

WPA3 Enterprise

C.

WPA3 Personal

D.

WPA2 Enterprise

Full Access
Question # 140

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A.

TCP connect

B.

ICMP echo

C.

ICMP jitter

D.

UDP jitter

Full Access
Question # 141

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

A.

Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic

B.

Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible

C.

Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate

D.

Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it

E.

Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible

Full Access
Question # 142

Which language defines the structure or modelling of data for NETCONF and RESTCONF?

A.

YAM

B.

YANG

C.

JSON

D.

XML

Full Access
Question # 143

What is the rose of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WN environment?

A.

it performs authentication and authorization

B.

it manages the control plane.

C.

it is the centralized network management system

D.

it manages the data plane

Full Access
Question # 144

Which NTP mode must be activated when using a Cisco router as an NTP authoritative server?

A.

primary

B.

server

C.

broadcast client

D.

peer

Full Access
Question # 145

Refer to the exhibit. An engines configured TACACS^ to authenticate remote users but the configuration is not working as expected Which configuration must be applied to enable access?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 146

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.

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Question # 147

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching mechanisms they describe on the right.

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Question # 148

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.

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Question # 149

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the corresponding tools on the right.

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Question # 150

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numencal values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

A.

EIRP

B.

RSSI

C.

SNR

D.

bBi

Full Access
Question # 151

Which port is required to allow APs to join a WLC when directed broadcasts are used on a Cisco iOS switch?

A.

UDP5246

B.

TCP 5246

C.

TCP 5247

D.

UDP5247

Full Access
Question # 152

Drag and drop the description of the VSS technology from the left to the right. NOT all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 153

Which security feature does stateless authentication and authorization use for REST API calls?

A.

OAuth 2 token

B.

API keys

C.

SSL/TLS certificate encryption

D.

Cookie-based session authentication

Full Access
Question # 154

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied for the TACACS+ server to grant access-level rights to remote users?

A.

R1(config)# aaa authentication login enable

B.

R1(config)# aaa authorization exec default local if-authenticated

C.

R1(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+

D.

R1(config)# aaa accounting commands 15 default start-stop group tacacs+

Full Access
Question # 155

Which tag defines the roaming domain and properties of an AP deployment?

A.

RF tag

B.

policy tag

C.

site tag

D.

AP tag

Full Access
Question # 156

High bandwidth utilization is occurring on interface Gig0/1 of a router. An engineer must identify the flows that are consuming the most bandwidth. Cisco DNA Center isused as a flow exporter and is configured with the IP address 192.168.23.1 and UDP port 23000. Which configuration must be applied to set NetFlow data export and capture on the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 157

Why are stateless calls executed by REST API useful in cloud applications?

A.

They control URL decoding.

B.

They rely on data stored on the server for calls

C.

They use HTTPS to implement all calls.

D.

They are easy to redeploy and to scale

Full Access
Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the response "204 No Content mean for the REST API request?

A.

Interface toopback 100 is not removed from the configuration.

B.

Interface toopback 100 is not found in the configuration.

C.

Interface toopback 100 is removed from the configuration.

D.

The DELETE method is not supported.

Full Access
Question # 159

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must collect basic statistics about the approximate amount of IPv4 and IPv6 flows entering Gi0/0 using NetFlow. However, the administrator is concerned that NetFlow processing during periods of high utilization on Gi0/0 will overwhelm the router CPU Which configuration minimizes CPU impact and keeps the data flows across Gi0/0 Intact?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a script to retrieve the running configuration from a NETCONF-capable Cisco IOS XE device that is configured with default settings. The script fails. Which configuration must be applied to retrieve the configurauon using NETCONF?

A.

Print (netconf_host.get_config('show running'!)

B.

hostkey_verify=True,

C.

device_params={name':'ios-xe'})

D.

port=830

Full Access
Question # 161

Whatisthe purposeofthe weight attribute in an EID-lo-RLOC mapping?

A.

it indicates the preference for using LISP over native IP connectivity.

B.

it determines the administrative distance of LISP generated routes in the RIB

C.

It identifies the preferred RLOC address family.

D.

it indicates the load-balancing ratio between CTRs of 9m earns priority.

Full Access
Question # 162

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is creating a Pytnon script to fetch the BGP configuration from a device using RESTCONF. What does the output Indicate?

A.

The BGP data resource identifier in the URL Incorrect.

B.

There is no BGP process running on the device

C.

RESTCONF is not enabled on the device.

Full Access
Question # 164

What is a benefit of yang?

A.

It enforces configuration constraints.

B.

It enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf list.

C.

It enforces the use of a specific encoding format for NETCONF.

D.

It collects statistical constraint analysis information.

Full Access
Question # 165

Which DNS record type is required to allow APs to discover a WLC by using DNS on IPv4?

A.

NS

B.

SOA

C.

MX

D.

A

Full Access
Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the configuration?

A.

It enables NTP in client mode

B.

It allows interface g0/1 to send and receive NTP broadcast packets

C.

It allows interface g0/1 to send NTP broadcast packets.

D.

It allows interface g0/1 to receive NTP broadcast packets.

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Question # 167

How does a Type 2 hypervisor function?

A.

It runs on a virtual server and includes its own operating system,

B.

It runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system.

C.

It is installed as an application on an already installed operating system.

D.

It enables other operating systems to run on it.

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Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit. Why was the response code generated?

A.

The resource was unreachable

B.

Access was denied based on the user permissions.

C.

The resource 15 no longer available on the server.

D.

There Is a conflict in the current stale of the resource.

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Question # 169

In a cisco DNA center plug and play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed?

A.

The device has not been assigned a workflow

B.

The device could not be added to the fabnc.

C.

The device had an error and could not be provisioned

D.

The device is from a third-party vendor

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Question # 170

Refer to the exhibit.

Which result Is achieved by the CoPP configuration?

A.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always allowed.

B.

Class-default traffic is dropped.

C.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always allowed with a limited CIR.

D.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always dropped.

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Question # 171

Why would a small or mid-size business choose a cloud solution over an on-premises solution?

A.

Cloud provides higher data security than on-premises.

B.

Cloud provides more control over the implementation process than on-premises.

C.

Cloud provides greater ability for customization than on-premises.

D.

Cloud provides lower upfront cost than on-premises.

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Question # 172

Refertothe exhibit. A network engineer Is troubleshooting an Issue with the file server based on reports of slow file transmissions. Which two commands or command sets are required. In switch SW1 to analyze the traffic from the file server with a packet analyzer? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 173

An engineer receives a report that an application exhibits poor performance. On the switch where the server is connected, this syslog message is visible:

SW_MATM4-MACFLAP_N0HF: Host 0054.3831.8253 in vlan 14 is flapping between port GUAM and port Gi1/0/2.

What is causing the problem?

A.

wrong SFP+ and cable connected between the server and the switch

B.

undesirable load-balancing configuration on the switch

C.

failed NIC on the server

D.

invalid port channel configuration on the switch

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Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must send the 172.16.2.0 /24 user traffic to a packet capture tool to troubleshoot an issue. Which action completes the configuration?

A.

Encrypt the traffic between the users and the monitoring servers.

B.

Disable the spanning tree protocol on the monitoring server VLAN.

C.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the server interfaces.

D.

Define the remote span VLAN on SW1 and SW2.

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Question # 175

A technician is assisting a user who cannot connect to a website. The technician attempts to ping the default gateway and DNS server of the workstation. According to troubleshooting methodology, this is an example of:

A.

a divide-and-conquer approach.

B.

a bottom-up approach.

C.

a top-to-bottom approach.

D.

implementing a solution.

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Question # 176

Simulation 07

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Question # 177

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to use RESTCONF to configure GigabitEthernet2 on a remote router with IP address 192.168.159.10. but the configuration fails. Which configuration is required to complete the action?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 178

An engineer must configure a multicast UDP jitter operation. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Question # 179

Reler to the exhibit. An engineer a configuring WebAuth on a Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series WIC. The engineer has purchased a third-party certificate using the FQDN of the WLC as the CN and intends to use bit on the WebAuth splash page What must be configured so that the clients do not receive a certificate error?

A.

Virtual IPv4 Address must be set to a routatte address

B.

Virtual IPv4 Hostname must match the CN of the certificate.

C.

Trustpoint must be set to the management certificate of the WLC.

D.

Web Au!h Interoepl HTTPs must be enabled.

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Question # 180

What is a benefit of Cisco TrustSec in a multilayered LAN network design?

A.

Policy or ACLS are nor required.

B.

There is no requirements to run IEEE 802.1X when TrustSec is enabled on a switch port.

C.

Applications flows between hosts on the LAN to remote destinations can be encrypted.

D.

Policy can be applied on a hop-by-hop basis.

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Question # 181

What is a difference between Chef and other automation tools?

A.

Chef is an agenless tool that uses a primary/minion architecture, and SaltStack is an agent-based tool that uses a primary/secondary architecture

B.

Chef uses Domain Specific Language, and Puppet uses Ruby.

C.

Chef is an agent-based tool that uses cookbooks, and Ansible is an agentless toot that uses playbooks.

D.

Chef is an agentless tool that uses playbooks, and Ansible is an agent-based toot that uses cookbooks.

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Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be added to enable remote access only using SSHv1 or SSHv2 to this router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 183

What is provided to the client to identify the authenticated session in subsequent API calls after authenticating to the Cisco DNA Center API?

A.

username and password

B.

client X.500 certificate

C.

authentication token

D.

session cookie

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Question # 184

What is the preferred QoS marking for delay-sensitive real-time protocols such as RTP?

A.

CS1

B.

ATM-CLP

C.

EF

D.

AF

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Question # 185

What is a characteristics of traffic shaping?

A.

can be applied in both traffic direction

B.

queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full

C.

drops out-of-profile packets

D.

causes TCP retransmits when packet are dropped

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Question # 186

Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?

A.

LC

B.

SC

C.

ST

D.

MPO

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Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a manually triggered EEM applet to enable the R2 router interface and assign an IP address to it. What is required to complete this configuration?

A.

R2(config-applel)# event oir

B.

R2(config-apple)#action 4 cli command "ip add 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.255"

C.

R2(config)# event manager session cli username

D.

R2(config-apple)# event none sync yes

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Question # 188

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the corresponding tools on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 189

Simulation 04

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Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the IP SLA configuration?

A.

The operation runs 300 times a day

B.

The operation runs 5000

C.

The rate is configured to repeat every 5 minutes

D.

IP SLA is scheduled to run at 3 a.m

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Question # 191

Which configuration filters outDOT1Xmessages in the format shown below from being sent toward Syslog server 10.15.20.33?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 192

Simulation 10

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Question # 193

What is a command-line tool for consuming REST APIs?

A.

Postman

B.

CURL

C.

Firefox

D.

Python requests

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Question # 194

How do OSPF and EIGKP compare?

A.

OSPF and EIGRP us© the same administrative distance.

B.

Both OSPF and EIGRP use the concept of areas.

C.

EIGRP shows an known routes, and OSPF shows successor and feasible successor routes.

D.

EIGRP shows successor and feasible successor routes, and OSPF shows all known routes.

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Question # 195

Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers?

A.

TCP

B.

OMP

C.

UDP

D.

BGP

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Question # 196

Which configuration allows administrators to configure the device through the console port and use a network authentication server?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 197

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 198

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is show on the radiation patterns?

A.

Dipole

B.

Yagi

C.

Patch

D.

Omnidirectional

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Question # 199

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

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Question # 200

Which two network problems Indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.)

A.

port flapping

B.

excess jitter

C.

misrouted network packets

D.

duplicate IP addresses

E.

bandwidth-related packet loss

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Question # 201

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. Which change to the first line of the script resolves the error?

A.

from ncclient import

B.

import manager

C.

from ncclient import*

D.

import ncclient manager

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Question # 202

Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Question # 203

“HTTP/1.1 204 content” is returned when cur –I –x delete command is issued. Which situation has occurred?

A.

The object could not be located at the URI path.

B.

The command succeeded in deleting the object

C.

The object was located at the URI, but it could not be deleted.

D.

The URI was invalid

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Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch Which command meets this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 205

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

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Question # 206

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

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Question # 207

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interface or interface are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

A.

GigabitEthemet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40

B.

only GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

only GigabttEthernet0/0

D.

Gigabit Ethernet0/0 and GigabitEthemet0/1

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Question # 208

What are two characteristics of VXLAN? (Choose two)

A.

It uses VTEPs to encapsulate and decapsulate frames.

B.

It has a 12-bit network identifier

C.

It allows for up to 16 million VXLAN segments

D.

It lacks support for host mobility

E.

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay.

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Question # 209

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer?

A.

Layer 2 access

B.

three-tier

C.

two-tier

D.

routed access

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Question # 210

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 211

Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit.Anetwork engineer configuresNATon R1 and enters theshowcommand to verity the configuration What does the output confirm?

A.

The first pocket triggered NAT to add on entry to NAT table

B.

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters

C.

A Telnet from 160.1.1 1 to 10.1.1.10 has been initiated.

D.

R1 to configured with PAT overload parameters

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Question # 213

A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

Which protocol does the design include?

A.

HSRP version 2

B.

VRRP version 2

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP version 3

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Question # 214

Refer to the exhibit.

Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give?

A.

NameError: name 'json' is not defined

B.

KeyError 'kickstart_ver_str'

C.

7.61

D.

7.0(3)I7(4)

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Question # 215

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking

environments and data centers?

A.

classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

B.

uses flexible NetFlow

C.

classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP

addresscorrect

D.

assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

Full Access
Question # 216

Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller?

A.

Option 43

B.

Option 60

C.

Option 67

D.

Option 150

Full Access
Question # 217

Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

A.

under interface saturation condition

B.

under network convergence condition

C.

under all network condition

D.

under traffic classification and marking conditions.

Full Access
Question # 218

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

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Question # 219

In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?

A.

Layer 3

B.

inter-xTR

C.

auto anchor

D.

fast roam

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Question # 220

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

R1 becomes the active router.

B.

R1 becomes the standby router.

C.

If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online.

D.

If R1 goes down. R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online.

E.

If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online.

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Question # 221

Refer to the exhibit Which single security feature is recommended to provide Network Access Control in the enterprise?

A.

MAB

B.

802.1X

C.

WebAuth

D.

port security sticky MAC

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Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer troubleshoots an issue with the port channel between SW1 and SW2. which command resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 223

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Question # 224

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Question # 225

OR

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Question # 226

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Question # 227

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Question # 228

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Question # 229

OR

OR

OR

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Question # 230

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Question # 231

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Question # 232

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Question # 233

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Question # 234

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Question # 235

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Question # 236

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Question # 237

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Question # 238

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Question # 239

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Question # 240

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Question # 241

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Question # 242

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Question # 243

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Question # 244

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Question # 245

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