In an online application which of the following would provide the MOST information about the transaction audit trail?
File layouts
Data architecture
System/process flowchart
Source code documentation
The most information about the transaction audit trail in an online application can be obtained by reviewing the system/process flowchart. A system/process flowchart is a diagram that illustrates the sequence of steps, activities, or events that occur within or affect a system or process. A system/process flowchart can provide the most information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing how transactions are initiated, processed, recorded, and completed, and identifying the inputs, outputs, controls, and dependencies involved in each transaction. File layouts are specifications that define how data are structured or organized on a file or database. File layouts can provide some information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing what data elements are stored or retrieved for each transaction, but they do not provide information about how transactions are executed or tracked. Data architecture is a framework that defines how data are collected, stored, managed, and used within an organization or system. Data architecture can provide some information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing what data sources, models, standards, and policies are used for each transaction, but they do not provide information about how transactions are performed or monitored. Source code documentation is a description or explanation of the source code of a software program or application. Source code documentation can provide some information about the transaction audit trail in an online application, by showing what logic, algorithms, or functions are used for each transaction, but they do not provide information about how transactions are handled or audited.Â
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the incident response process for a suspected breach?
Inform potentially affected customers of the security breach
Notify business management of the security breach.
Research the validity of the alerted breach
Engage a third party to independently evaluate the alerted breach.
 The first step in the incident response process for a suspected breach is to research the validity of the alerted breach. An incident response process is a set of procedures that defines how to handle security incidents in a timely and effective manner. The first step in this process is to research the validity of the alerted breach, which means to verify whether the alert is genuine or false positive, to determine the scope and impact of the incident, and to gather relevant information for further analysis and action. Informing potentially affected customers of the security breach, notifying business management of the security breach, and engaging a third party to independently evaluate the alerted breach are also steps in the incident response process, but they are not the first step. References:
Which of the following is the BEST reason for an organization to use clustering?
To decrease system response time
To Improve the recovery lime objective (RTO)
To facilitate faster backups
To improve system resiliency
Clustering is a technique that groups multiple servers or nodes together to act as one system, providing high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. Clustering can improve system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from failures or disruptions without compromising its functionality or performance. Clustering can achieve this by providing redundancy and fault tolerance for critical components or processes, enabling automatic failover and recovery in case of node failures, distributing workload among multiple nodes to avoid overloading or bottlenecks, and allowing dynamic addition or removal of nodes to meet changing demand or capacity needs. Clustering may also decrease system response time by improving performance and efficiency through load balancing and parallel processing, but this is not its primary purpose. Clustering may facilitate faster backups by enabling concurrent backup operations across multiple nodes, but this is not its main benefit. Clustering may improve the recovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, by reducing the downtime and data loss caused by failures, but this is not the best reason for using clustering, as there may be other factors that affect the RTO, such as backup frequency, recovery procedures, and testing methods.Â
An organization has outsourced the development of a core application. However, the organization plans to bring the support and future maintenance of the application back in-house. Which of the following findings should be the IS auditor's GREATEST concern?
The cost of outsourcing is lower than in-house development.
The vendor development team is located overseas.
A training plan for business users has not been developed.
The data model is not clearly documented.
 The finding that should be the IS auditor’s greatest concern is that the data model is not clearly documented. A data model is a representation of the structure, relationships, and constraints of the data used by an application. It is a vital component of the software development process, as it helps to ensure the accuracy, consistency, and quality of the data1. A clear and comprehensive documentation of the data model is essential for the maintenance and support of the application, as it facilitates the understanding, modification, and troubleshooting of the data and the application logic2.
If the organization plans to bring the support and future maintenance of the application back in-house, it will need to have access to the data model documentation from the vendor. Without it, the organization may face difficulties in transferring the knowledge and skills from the vendor to the in-house team, as well as in adapting and enhancing the application to meet changing business needs and requirements3. The lack of data model documentation may also increase the risk of errors, inconsistencies, and inefficiencies in the data and the application performance2.
The other findings are not as concerning as the lack of data model documentation, because they do not directly affect the quality and maintainability of the application. The cost of outsourcing is lower than in-house development is a benefit rather than a risk for the organization, as it implies that outsourcing has helped to save time and money for the organization4. The vendor development team is located overseas is a common practice in outsourcing, and it does not necessarily imply a lower quality or a higher risk of the application. However, it may pose some challenges in terms of communication, coordination, and cultural differences, which can be managed by establishing clear expectations, roles, and responsibilities, as well as using effective tools and methods for communication and collaboration5. A training plan for business users has not been developed is a gap that should be addressed by the organization before deploying the application, as it may affect the user acceptance and satisfaction of the application. However, it does not directly impact the quality or maintainability of the application itself. References:
Which of the following provides the BEST providence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed?
The service level agreement (SLA) includes penalties for non-performance.
Adequate action is taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA).
The vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance.
Internal performance standards align with corporate strategy.
 Adequate action taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA) provides the best evidence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed. This shows that the organization is monitoring the performance of the provider and enforcing the terms of the SLA.
The other options are not as convincing as evidence of proper management. Option A, the SLA includes penalties for non-performance, is a good practice but does not guarantee that the penalties are actually applied or that the performance is satisfactory. Option C, the vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance, is not reliable because the data may be biased or inaccurate. Option D, internal performance standards align with corporate strategy, is irrelevant to the question of outsourced provider management.
References:
IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) should be based on the:
maximum tolerable loss of data.
nature of the outage
maximum tolerable downtime (MTD).
business-defined criticality of the systems.
IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time that an IT system can be unavailable after a disaster before it causes unacceptable consequences for the business. IT RTOs should be based on the business-defined criticality of the systems, which reflects how important they are for supporting the business processes and functions. The maximum tolerable loss of data, the nature of the outage, and the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) are also factors that affect the IT RTOs, but they are not the primary basis for determining them.Â
A project team has decided to switch to an agile approach to develop a replacement for an existing business application. Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to ensure the effectiveness of the protect audit?
Compare the agile process with previous methodology.
Identify and assess existing agile process control
Understand the specific agile methodology that will be followed.
Interview business process owners to compile a list of business requirements
Understanding the specific agile methodology that will be followed is the first step that an IS auditor should do to ensure the effectiveness of the project audit. An IS auditor should familiarize themselves with the agile approach, principles, practices, and tools that will be used by the project team, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the project stakeholders. This will help the IS auditor to identify and assess the relevant risks and controls for the project audit. The other options are not the first steps that an IS auditor should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the specific agile methodology. References:
Which of the following metrics would BEST measure the agility of an organization's IT function?
Average number of learning and training hours per IT staff member
Frequency of security assessments against the most recent standards and guidelines
Average time to turn strategic IT objectives into an agreed upon and approved initiative
Percentage of staff with sufficient IT-related skills for the competency required of their roles
The metric that would best measure the agility of an organization’s IT function is average time to turn strategic IT objectives into an agreed upon and approved initiative. IT agility is the ability of an IT function to respond quickly and effectively to changing business needs and opportunities. By measuring how fast an IT function can translate strategic IT objectives into actionable initiatives, such as projects or programs, an organization can assess how well its IT function can align with and support its business strategy. Average number of learning and training hours per IT staff member, frequency of security assessments against the most recent standards and guidelines, and percentage of staff with sufficient IT-related skills for the competency required of their roles are metrics that may indicate other aspects of IT performance, such as capability development, security maturity, and skills gap analysis, but they do not directly measure IT agility. References: ISACA Journal Article: Measuring IT Agility
In a RAO model, which of the following roles must be assigned to only one individual?
Responsible
Informed
Consulted
Accountable
In a RAO model, which stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed, the accountable role must be assigned to only one individual. The accountable role is the person who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for the outcome of the project or task, and who approves or rejects the work done by the responsible role. The accountable role cannot be delegated or shared, as it is essential to have a clear and single point of accountability for each project or task.
The other roles can be assigned to more than one individual:
Which of the following should an IS auditor ensure is classified at the HIGHEST level of sensitivity?
Server room access history
Emergency change records
IT security incidents
Penetration test results
 The IS auditor should ensure that penetration test results are classified at the highest level of sensitivity, because they contain detailed information about the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the IT systems and networks, as well as the methods and tools used by the testers to exploit them. Penetration test results can be used by malicious actors to launch cyberattacks or cause damage to the organization if they are disclosed or accessed without authorization. Therefore, they should be protected with the highest level of confidentiality, integrity and availability. The other options are not as sensitive as penetration test results, because they either do not reveal as much information about the IT security posture, or they are already known or reported by the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
In which phase of penetration testing would host detection and domain name system (DNS) interrogation be performed?
Discovery
Attacks
Planning
Reporting
Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. Penetration testing typically consists of four phases: planning, discovery, attacks, and reporting. In the discovery phase, penetration testers gather information about the target system or network, such as host detection, domain name system (DNS) interrogation, port scanning, service identification, operating system fingerprinting, vulnerability scanning, etc. This information can help to identify potential entry points, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities that can be exploited in the subsequent attack phase. Host detection and DNS interrogation are techniques that can be used in the discovery phase to determine the active hosts and their IP addresses and hostnames on the target network. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 368.
Which of the following would BEST enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy?
Mobile device tracking program
Mobile device upgrade program
Mobile device testing program
Mobile device awareness program
A mobile device awareness program would best enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. A mobile device awareness program is a set of activities that aim to educate and inform the employees about the benefits, challenges, and best practices of using their personal mobile devices for work purposes. A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to:
A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to reduce the security risks associated with BYOD by enhancing the employees’ knowledge, skills, and behavior in using their mobile devices securely and responsibly. A mobile device awareness program can also help the organization to comply with relevant regulations and standards that govern data privacy and security in the cloud1.
The other options are not as effective as a mobile device awareness program in enabling an organization to address the security risks associated with BYOD. Option A, mobile device tracking program, is a tool that allows the organization to monitor and locate the employees’ mobile devices in case of loss or theft. However, this tool may not prevent or detect other types of security risks, such as malware infection or data breach. Option B, mobile device upgrade program, is a process that ensures that the employees’ mobile devices are running the latest versions of operating systems and applications. However, this process may not address other aspects of security, such as user behavior or data protection. Option C, mobile device testing program, is a method that verifies the functionality and compatibility of the employees’ mobile devices with the organization’s systems and networks. However, this method may not cover all the scenarios or factors that may affect the security of the mobile devices or the organization’s data2.
References:
Which of the following BEST demonstrates that IT strategy Is aligned with organizational goals and objectives?
IT strategies are communicated to all Business stakeholders
Organizational strategies are communicated to the chief information officer (CIO).
Business stakeholders are Involved In approving the IT strategy.
The chief information officer (CIO) is involved In approving the organizational strategies
Business stakeholders being involved in approving the IT strategy best demonstrates that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives. IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT resources and capabilities will support and enable the achievement of business goals and objectives. Business stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the organization’s activities and outcomes. By involving business stakeholders in approving the IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT strategy reflects and supports the business needs, expectations, and priorities. The other options do not necessarily indicate that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives, as they do not involve the participation or feedback of business stakeholders. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 97
After the merger of two organizations, which of the following is the MOST important task for an IS auditor to perform?
Verifying that access privileges have been reviewed
investigating access rights for expiration dates
Updating the continuity plan for critical resources
Updating the security policy
The most important task for an IS auditor to perform after the merger of two organizations is to verify that access privileges have been reviewed. Access privileges are the permissions granted to users, groups, or roles to access, modify, or manage IT resources, such as systems, applications, data, or networks. After a merger, the IS auditor should ensure that the access privileges of both organizations are aligned with the new business objectives, policies, and processes, and that there are no conflicts, overlaps, or gaps in the access rights. The IS auditor should also verify that the access privileges are based on the principle of least privilege, which means that users are granted only the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks.
The other options are not as important as verifying that access privileges have been reviewed:
Stress testing should ideally be earned out under a:
test environment with production workloads.
production environment with production workloads.
production environment with test data.
test environment with test data.
 Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates the behavior and reliability of a system under extreme conditions, such as high workload, limited resources, or concurrent users. Stress testing should ideally be carried out under a test environment with production workloads, as this would simulate the most realistic and demanding scenario for the system without affecting the actual production environment. A production environment with production workloads is not suitable for stress testing, as it could cause disruption or damage to the system and its users. A production environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could compromise the integrity and security of the production data. A test environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could underestimate the potential issues and risks that could occur in the production environment. References:
An IS auditor has been asked to audit the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware. The auditor’s PRIMARY concern Is that:
the implementation plan meets user requirements.
a full, visible audit trail will be Included.
a dear business case has been established.
the new hardware meets established security standards
 The IS auditor’s primary concern when auditing the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware is that a clear business case has been established. A business case is a document that justifies the need, feasibility, and benefits of a proposed project or investment. A clear business case can help to ensure that the acquisition of new computer hardware is aligned with the organization’s goals, objectives, and requirements, and that it provides value for money and return on investment. The other options are not as important as establishing a clear business case, as they do not address the rationale or justification for acquiring new computer hardware. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467
Which of the following BEST helps to ensure data integrity across system interfaces?
Environment segregation
Reconciliation
System backups
Access controls
The best way to ensure data integrity across system interfaces is to perform reconciliation. Reconciliation is the process of comparing and verifying the data from different sources or systems to ensure that they are consistent, accurate, and complete. Reconciliation can help to identify and resolve any discrepancies, errors, or anomalies in the data that could affect the quality, reliability, or validity of the information. Reconciliation can also help to detect and prevent any unauthorized or fraudulent data manipulation or modification. References:
Which of the following BEST describes an audit risk?
The company is being sued for false accusations.
The financial report may contain undetected material errors.
Employees have been misappropriating funds.
Key employees have not taken vacation for 2 years.
The best description of an audit risk is that the financial report may contain undetected material errors. Audit risk is the risk that the auditor expresses an inappropriate opinion on the financial report when it contains material misstatements or errors. Audit risk consists of three components: inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. Inherent risk is the susceptibility of an assertion or a control to a material misstatement or error due to factors such as complexity, volatility, fraud, or human error. Control risk is the risk that a material misstatement or error will not be prevented or detected by the internal controls. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor’s procedures will not detect a material misstatement or error that exists in an assertion or a control. References:
Which of the following should be the IS auditor's PRIMARY focus, when evaluating an organization's offsite storage facility?
Shared facilities
Adequacy of physical and environmental controls
Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test
Retention policy and period
 The IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating an organization’s offsite storage facility should be the adequacy of physical and environmental controls. Physical and environmental controls are essential to protect the offsite storage facility from unauthorized access, theft, fire, water damage, pests or other hazards that could compromise the integrity and availability of backup media. Shared facilities is something that the IS auditor should consider when evaluating the offsite storage facility, but it is not the primary focus. Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test or retention policy and period are things that the IS auditor should review when evaluating the organization’s BCP or backup strategy, not the offsite storage facility itself. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 388
Which of the following BEST enables the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application?
Project segments are established.
The work is separated into phases.
The work is separated into sprints.
Project milestones are created.
The best way to enable the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application is to separate the work into sprints. Sprints are short, time-boxed iterations that deliver a potentially releasable product increment at the end of each sprint. Sprints allow agile teams to work in a flexible and adaptive manner, respond quickly to changing customer needs and feedback, and deliver value faster and more frequently. Sprints also help teams to plan, execute, review, and improve their work in a collaborative and transparent way. Project segments, phases, and milestones are not specific to agile projects and do not necessarily enable the effectiveness of an agile project. References: Agile Project Management [What is it & How to Start] - Atlassian, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version).
Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?
Apply single sign-on for access control
Implement segregation of duties.
Enforce an internal data access policy.
Enforce the use of digital signatures.
The most appropriate control to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system is to enforce an internal data access policy. A data access policy defines who can access what data, under what conditions and for what purposes. It also specifies the roles and responsibilities of data owners, custodians and users, as well as the security measures and controls to protect data confidentiality, integrity and availability. By enforcing a data access policy, the organization can ensure that only authorized personnel can retrieve confidential information from the business application system. Applying single sign-on for access control, implementing segregation of duties and enforcing the use of digital signatures are also useful controls, but they are not sufficient to prevent unauthorized data retrieval without a clear and comprehensive data access policy. References:
In an environment that automatically reports all program changes, which of the following is the MOST efficient way to detect unauthorized changes to production programs?
Reviewing the last compile date of production programs
Manually comparing code in production programs to controlled copies
Periodically running and reviewing test data against production programs
Verifying user management approval of modifications
Reviewing the last compile date of production programs is the most efficient way to detect unauthorized changes to production programs, as it can quickly identify any discrepancies between the expected and actual dates of program modification. The last compile date is a timestamp that indicates when a program was last compiled or translated from source code to executable code. Any changes to the source code would require a recompilation, which would update the last compile date. The IS auditor can compare the last compile date of production programs with the authorized change requests and reports to verify that only approved changes were implemented. The other options are not as efficient as option A, as they are more time-consuming, labor-intensive or error-prone. Manually comparing code in production programs to controlled copies is a method of verifying that the code in production matches the code in a secure repository or library, but it requires access to both versions of code and a tool or technique to compare them line by line. Periodically running and reviewing test data against production programs is a method of verifying that the programs produce the expected outputs and results, but it requires designing, executing and evaluating test cases for each program. Verifying user management approval of modifications is a method of verifying that the changes to production programs were authorized and documented, but it does not ensure that the changes were implemented correctly or accurately. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.3: Change Management Practices.
Which of the following findings should be of GREATEST concern for an IS auditor when auditing the effectiveness of a phishing simu-lation test administered for staff members?
Staff members who failed the test did not receive follow-up education
Test results were not communicated to staff members.
Staff members were not notified about the test beforehand.
Security awareness training was not provided prior to the test.
 The IS auditor should be most concerned about the lack of follow-up education for staff members who failed the phishing simulation test. Phishing simulation tests are designed to assess the level of awareness and susceptibility of staff members to phishing attacks, and to provide feedback and training to improve their security behavior. If staff members who failed the test do not receive follow-up education, they will not learn from their mistakes and may continue to fall victim to real phishing attacks, which could compromise the security of the organization.
The other options are less concerning for the IS auditor:
Which of the following observations would an IS auditor consider the GREATEST risk when conducting an audit of a virtual server farm tor potential software vulnerabilities?
Guest operating systems are updated monthly
The hypervisor is updated quarterly.
A variety of guest operating systems operate on one virtual server
Antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only.
 Antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only is the observation that an IS auditor would consider the greatest risk when conducting an audit of a virtual server farm for potential software vulnerabilities. A virtual server farm is a collection of servers that run multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical host using a software layer called a hypervisor. A guest operating system is the operating system installed on each VM. Antivirus software is a software program that detects and removes malicious software from a computer system. If antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only, it means that the hypervisor and the host operating system are not protected from malware attacks, which could compromise the security and availability of all VMs running on the same host. Therefore, antivirus software should be implemented on both the guest and host operating systems as well as on the hypervisor. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 378
An IS auditor is reviewing security controls related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents. Which of the following observations should be of MOST concern to the auditor?
Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents
Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled.
Employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools.
The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser
The observation that should be of most concern to the auditor when reviewing security controls related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents is that employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools. Collaboration tools are software or hardware devices that enable users to communicate, cooperate, and coordinate with each other on a common task or project. Collaboration tools can facilitate information sharing and knowledge exchange among users, but they can also pose security risks if not properly controlled or managed. Employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools, as this can compromise the security and confidentiality of intellectual property and patents, which are valuable and sensitive assets of the organization. Employees may share files with unauthorized or untrusted users who may misuse or disclose the intellectual property and patents, either intentionally or unintentionally. This can cause harm or damage to the organization, such as loss of competitive advantage, reputation, revenue, or legal rights. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Training is an activity that educates and instructs users on how to use collaboration tools effectively and securely, such as how to access, share, store, and protect information using collaboration tools. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents, as this can affect the awareness and competence of users on collaboration tools, and increase the likelihood of errors or mistakes that may compromise the security or quality of information. However, this observation may not be directly related to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any information system or resource used by the department. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Logging and monitoring are processes that record and analyze the events or activities that occur on an information system or network, such as user actions, system operations, data changes, errors, alerts, etc. Content filtering is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of information based on predefined criteria or rules, such as keywords, categories, sources, etc. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled, as this can affect the auditability, accountability, and visibility of collaboration tools, and prevent detection or investigation of security incidents or violations related to information sharing using collaboration tools. However, this observation may not be specific to collaboration tools, as it may affect any information system or network that uses content filtering. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. A hosted collaboration tool is a type of cloud-based service that provides collaboration functionality over the Internet without requiring installation or maintenance on local devices. An Internet browser is a software application that enables users to access and interact with web-based content or services. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser, as this can affect the availability and reliability of collaboration tools, and introduce security or privacy risks for information sharing using collaboration tools. However, this observation may not be unique to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any cloud-based service that uses an Internet browser.Â
During a follow-up audit, it was found that a complex security vulnerability of low risk was not resolved within the agreed-upon timeframe. IT has stated that the system with the identified vulnerability is being replaced and is expected to be fully functional in two months Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Require documentation that the finding will be addressed within the new system
Schedule a meeting to discuss the issue with senior management
Perform an ad hoc audit to determine if the vulnerability has been exploited
Recommend the finding be resolved prior to implementing the new system
 Requiring documentation that the finding will be addressed within the new system is the best course of action for a follow-up audit. An IS auditor should obtain evidence that the complex security vulnerability of low risk will be resolved in the new system and that there is a reasonable timeline for its implementation. The other options are not appropriate courses of action, as they may be too costly, time-consuming, or impractical for a low-risk finding. References:
What should an IS auditor do FIRST when management responses
to an in-person internal control questionnaire indicate a key internal
control is no longer effective?
Determine the resources required to make the control
effective.
Validate the overall effectiveness of the internal control.
Verify the impact of the control no longer being effective.
Ascertain the existence of other compensating controls.
The first thing that an IS auditor should do when management responses to an in-person internal control questionnaire indicate a key internal control is no longer effective is to ascertain the existence of other compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative controls that provide reasonable assurance of achieving the same objective as the original control. The IS auditor should verify whether there are any compensating controls in place that can mitigate the risk of the key control being ineffective, and evaluate their adequacy and effectiveness. The other options are not the first steps, because they either require more information about the compensating controls, or they are actions to be taken after identifying and assessing the compensating controls. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.3
Which of the following would BEST manage the risk of changes in requirements after the analysis phase of a business application development project?
Expected deliverables meeting project deadlines
Sign-off from the IT team
Ongoing participation by relevant stakeholders
Quality assurance (OA) review
Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system?
Data from the source and target system may be intercepted.
Data from the source and target system may have different data formats.
Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system.
System performance may be impacted by the migration
The greatest security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system is data from the source and target system may be intercepted. Data interception is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual captures or accesses data that are being transmitted or stored on an information system or network. Data interception can compromise the confidentiality and integrity of data, and cause harm or damage to data owners or users. Data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system involves transferring data from one system or location to another system or location over a network connection. This poses a high risk of data interception, as data may be exposed or vulnerable during transit or storage on unsecured or untrusted networks or systems. Data from the source and target system may have different data formats is a possible challenge associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Data formats are specifications that define how data are structured or encoded on an information system or network. Data formats may vary depending on different systems or platforms. Data migration may require converting data from one format to another format to ensure compatibility and interoperability between systems. Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system is a possible outcome associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Retention period is a duration that defines how long data should be kept or stored on an information system or network before being deleted or destroyed. Retention period may depend on various factors such as legal requirements, business needs, storage capacity, etc. Data migration may involve deleting or destroying data that are past their retention period to reduce the volume or complexity of data to be transferred or to comply with regulations or policies. System performance may be impacted by the migration is a possible impact associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. System performance is a measure of how well an information system or network functions or operates, such as speed, reliability, availability, etc. System performance may be affected by data migration, as data migration may consume significant resources or bandwidth, cause interruptions or delays, or introduce errors or inconsistencies.Â
Capacity management enables organizations to:
forecast technology trends
establish the capacity of network communication links
identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded
determine business transaction volumes.
 Capacity management is a process that ensures that the IT resources of an organization are sufficient to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management enables organizations to identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded, by monitoring and analyzing the performance, utilization, and availability of the IT components, such as servers, networks, storage, applications, etc., and identifying any bottlenecks, gaps, or risks that may affect the service level agreements (SLAs) or quality of service (QoS). Capacity management also helps organizations to plan and optimize the use of IT resources, by forecasting the future demand and growth of the business, and aligning the IT capacity with the business needs and objectives. Forecasting technology trends is a possible outcome of capacity management, but it is not its main purpose. Establishing the capacity of network communication links is a part of capacity management, but it is not its main goal. Determining business transaction volumes is an input for capacity management, but it is not its main objective.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization's information security policy?
IT steering committee minutes
Business objectives
Alignment with the IT tactical plan
Compliance with industry best practice
The most important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization’s information security policy is the business objectives. An information security policy is a document that defines the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from internal and external threats. It should align with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals, and support its business processes and functions1. An information security policy should also be focused on the business needs and requirements of the organization, rather than on technical details or specific solutions2.
The other options are not as important as the business objectives, because they do not directly reflect the organization’s purpose and direction. IT steering committee minutes are records of the discussions and decisions made by a group of senior executives who oversee the IT strategy and governance of the organization. They may provide some insights into the information security policy, but they are not sufficient to evaluate its adequacy3. Alignment with the IT tactical plan is a measure of how well the information security policy supports the short-term actions and projects that implement the IT strategy. However, the IT tactical plan itself should be aligned with the business objectives, and not vice versa4. Compliance with industry best practice is a desirable quality of an information security policy, but it is not a guarantee of its effectiveness or suitability for the organization. Industry best practices are general guidelines or recommendations that may not apply to every organization or situation. An information security policy should be customized and tailored to the specific context and needs of the organization. References:
Which of the following controls BEST ensures appropriate segregation of dudes within an accounts payable department?
Ensuring that audit trails exist for transactions
Restricting access to update programs to accounts payable staff only
Including the creator's user ID as a field in every transaction record created
Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles
 Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles is the best control for ensuring appropriate segregation of duties within an accounts payable department. An IS auditor should verify that the access rights and permissions of the accounts payable staff are based on their roles and responsibilities, and that they are not able to perform incompatible or conflicting functions such as creating, approving, or paying invoices. This will help to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of authority within the accounts payable process. The other options are less effective controls for ensuring segregation of duties, as they may involve audit trails, access restrictions, or user identification. References:
Which of the following is the BEST source of information tor an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization's information security policy is adequate?
Information security program plans
Penetration test results
Risk assessment results
Industry benchmarks
The best source of information for an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization’s information security policy is adequate is the risk assessment results. The risk assessment results provide the auditor with an overview of the organization’s risk profile, including the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. The auditor can use the risk assessment results to compare the organization’s information security policy with the risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk treatment strategies of the organization. The auditor can also use the risk assessment results to evaluate if the information security policy is aligned with the organization’s objectives, requirements, and regulations.
Some of the web sources that support this answer are:
An organization with many desktop PCs is considering moving to a thin client architecture. Which of the following is the MAJOR advantage?
The security of the desktop PC is enhanced.
Administrative security can be provided for the client.
Desktop application software will never have to be upgraded.
System administration can be better managed
 The major advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture is that desktop application software will never have to be upgraded. A thin client architecture is a type of client-server architecture that uses lightweight or minimal devices (thin clients) as clients that connect to a central server that provides most of the processing and storage functions. A thin client architecture can offer several benefits over a traditional desktop PC architecture, such as lower cost, higher security, easier maintenance, etc. One of these benefits is that desktop application software will never have to be upgraded on thin clients, as all the applications are installed and updated on the server, and accessed by thin clients through a network connection. This can save time and money for installing and upgrading software on individual devices, and ensure consistency and compatibility among different devices. The security of the desktop PC is enhanced is a possible advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client architecture can enhance the security of desktop PCs by reducing the exposure or vulnerability of data and applications on individual devices, and centralizing the security management and control on the server. However, this advantage may depend on other factors such as network security, server security, user authentication, etc. Administrative security can be provided for the client is a possible advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client architecture can provide administrative security for clients by allowing administrators to configure and manage client devices remotely from the server, and enforce policies and restrictions on client access or usage. However, this advantage may depend on other factors such as network reliability, server availability, user compliance, etc. System administration can be better managed is a possible advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client architecture can improve system administration by simplifying and streamlining the tasks and activities involved in maintaining and supporting client devices, such as backup, recovery, troubleshooting, etc., and consolidating them on the server. However, this advantage may depend on other factors such as network bandwidth, server capacity, user satisfaction
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor's BEST recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and:
the organization's web server.
the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
the organization's network.
the Internet
The best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet. An IDS is a device or software that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. By placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet, the IS auditor can enhance the security of the network perimeter and detect any attack attempts that the firewall was unable to recognize.
The other options are not as effective as placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet:
An IS auditor is reviewing the release management process for an in-house software development solution. In which environment Is the software version MOST likely to be the same as production?
Staging
Testing
Integration
Development
 A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used to test and verify software before deploying it to production. A staging environment is most likely to have the same software version as production, as it mimics the real-world conditions and configurations that will be encountered in production. A testing environment is a separate environment that is used to perform various types of testing on software, such as functional testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. A testing environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may undergo frequent changes or updates based on testing results or feedback. An integration environment is a separate environment that is used to combine and test software components or modules from different developers or sources, to ensure that they work together as expected. An integration environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may involve different versions or branches of software from different sources. A development environment is a separate environment that is used by developers to create and modify software code. A development environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may contain unfinished or untested code that has not been released yet.
While auditing a small organization's data classification processes and procedures, an IS auditor noticed that data is often classified at the incorrect level. What is the MOST effective way for the organization to improve this situation?
Use automatic document classification based on content.
Have IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners.
Publish the data classification policy on the corporate web portal.
Conduct awareness presentations and seminars for information classification policies.
This is the most effective way for the organization to improve its data classification processes and procedures, because data owners are the ones who are responsible for assigning the appropriate level of classification to the data they create, collect, or manage. Data owners should be aware of the data classification policy, the criteria for each level of classification, and the implications of misclassification. IT security staff can provide tailored training for data owners based on their roles, functions, and types of data they handle.
The other options are not as effective as having IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners:
An IS auditor learns the organization has experienced several server failures in its distributed environment. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to limit the potential impact of server failures in the future?
Redundant pathways
Clustering
Failover power
Parallel testing
 Clustering is a technique that allows multiple servers to work together as a single system, providing high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. Clustering can limit the potential impact of server failures in a distributed environment, as it can automatically switch the workload to another server in the cluster if one server fails, without interrupting the service. Redundant pathways, failover power, and parallel testing are also useful for improving the reliability and availability of servers, but they do not directly address the issue of server failures.Â
Which of the following is an example of a preventative control in an accounts payable system?
The system only allows payments to vendors who are included In the system's master vendor list.
Backups of the system and its data are performed on a nightly basis and tested periodically.
The system produces daily payment summary reports that staff use to compare against invoice totals.
Policies and procedures are clearly communicated to all members of the accounts payable department
The system only allows payments to vendors who are included in the system’s master vendor list is an example of a preventative control in an accounts payable system. A preventative control is a control that aims to prevent errors or irregularities from occurring in the first place. By restricting payments to vendors who are authorized and verified in the master vendor list, the system prevents unauthorized or fraudulent payments from being made. The other options are examples of other types of controls, such as backup (recovery), reconciliation (detective), and communication (directive) controls. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 223
Which of the following is the MOST important activity in the data classification process?
Labeling the data appropriately
Identifying risk associated with the data
Determining accountability of data owners
Determining the adequacy of privacy controls
Determining accountability of data owners is the most important activity in the data classification process. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or labels to data based on their value, sensitivity, criticality and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection, access and retention for data. Determining accountability of data owners is an activity that identifies and assigns roles and responsibilities for data classification, protection and management to individuals or functions within the organization. Data owners are individuals or functions who have authority and responsibility for defining, classifying, protecting and managing data throughout their lifecycle. Determining accountability of data owners is essential for ensuring that data are classified correctly and consistently, and that data classification policies and procedures are followed and enforced. The other options are not as important as option C, as they are dependent on or derived from the accountability of data owners. Labeling the data appropriately is an activity that applies the categories or labels assigned by data owners to data based on their classification criteria. Identifying risk associated with the data is an activity that assesses the potential impact and likelihood of loss, disclosure, modification or destruction of data based on their classification level. Determining the adequacy of privacy controls is an activity that evaluates whether the controls implemented to protect personal or sensitive data are sufficient and effective based on their classification level. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Data Classification.
An organization is considering allowing users to connect personal devices to the corporate network. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Conduct security awareness training.
Implement an acceptable use policy
Create inventory records of personal devices
Configure users on the mobile device management (MDM) solution
The first thing that should be done before allowing users to connect personal devices to the corporate network is to implement an acceptable use policy. An acceptable use policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using personal devices on the corporate network, such as security requirements, access rights, responsibilities, and consequences. An acceptable use policy can help to protect the organization from potential risks such as data leakage, malware infection, or legal liability. The other options are not as important as implementing an acceptable use policy, as they do not establish the boundaries and expectations for using personal devices on the corporate network. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 318
Which of the following provides the MOST assurance over the completeness and accuracy ol loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system?
Comparing code between old and new systems
Running historical transactions through the new system
Reviewing quality assurance (QA) procedures
Loading balance and transaction data to the new system
The most assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system can be obtained by running historical transactions through the new system. Historical transactions are transactions that have been processed and recorded by the old system in the past. Running historical transactions through the new system can provide the most assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by comparing the results and outputs of the new system with those of the old system, and verifying whether they match or differ. This can help identify and resolve any errors or issues that may arise from the new system, such as data conversion, functionality, compatibility, etc. Comparing code between old and new systems is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. Code is a set of instructions or commands that define how a system operates or functions. Comparing code between old and new systems can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by checking whether the logic, algorithms, or functions of the new system are consistent or equivalent with those of the old system. However, this may not be sufficient or reliable, as code may not reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the system, and may not detect any errors or issues that may occur at the data or user level. Reviewing quality assurance (QA) procedures is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. QA procedures are steps or activities that ensure that a system meets its quality standards and requirements, such as testing, verification, validation, etc. Reviewing QA procedures can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by evaluating whether the new system has been properly tested and verified before implementation. However, this may not be adequate or accurate, as QA procedures may not cover all aspects or scenarios of loan application processing, and may not reveal any errors or issues that may arise after implementation. Loading balance and transaction data to the new system is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. Balance and transaction data are data that reflect the status and history of loan applications in a system, such as amounts, dates, payments, etc. Loading balance and transaction data to the new system can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by transferring data from the old system to the new system and ensuring that they are consistent and correct. However, this may not be enough or valid, as balance and transaction data may not represent all aspects or features of loan application processing, and may not indicate any errors or issues that may arise
During the implementation of a new system, an IS auditor must assess whether certain automated calculations comply with the regulatory requirements Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain this assurance?
Review sign-off documentation
Review the source code related to the calculation
Re-perform the calculation with audit software
Inspect user acceptance lest (UAT) results
The best way to obtain assurance that certain automated calculations comply with the regulatory requirements is to re-perform the calculation with audit software. This will allow the auditor to independently verify the accuracy and validity of the calculation and compare it with the expected results. Reviewing sign-off documentation, source code, or user acceptance test results may not provide sufficient evidence or assurance that the calculation is correct and compliant. References:
The BEST way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment is by reviewing:
the access control system's log settings.
how the latest system changes were implemented.
the access control system's configuration.
the access rights that have been granted.
The best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment is by reviewing the access rights that have been granted. Access rights are permissions or privileges that define what actions or operations a user can perform on an information system or resource. By reviewing the access rights that have been granted to programmers, an IS auditor can verify whether they have been authorized to modify data in the production environment, which is where live data and applications are stored and executed. The access control system’s log settings are parameters that define what events or activities are recorded by the access control system, which is a system that enforces the access rights and policies of an information system or resource. The access control system’s log settings are not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as they do not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. How the latest system changes were implemented is a process that describes how software updates or modifications are deployed to the production environment. How the latest system changes were implemented is not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as it does not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. The access control system’s configuration is a set of rules or parameters that define how the access control system operates and functions. The access control system’s configuration is not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as it does not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers.Â
An IS auditor finds a high-risk vulnerability in a public-facing web server used to process online customer payments. The IS auditor should FIRST
document the exception in an audit report.
review security incident reports.
identify compensating controls.
notify the audit committee.
The first action that an IS auditor should take when finding a high-risk vulnerability in a public-facing web server used to process online customer payments is to identify compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that provide reasonable assurance of mitigating the risk of exploiting the vulnerability. The IS auditor should assess the effectiveness of the compensating controls and determine whether they reduce the risk to an acceptable level. If not, the IS auditor should recommend remediation actions to address the vulnerability. Documenting the exception in an audit report is an important action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. Reviewing security incident reports is a useful action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not provide assurance of preventing future incidents. Notifying the audit committee is a necessary action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not involve taking any corrective measures. References:
The due date of an audit project is approaching, and the audit manager has determined that only 60% of the audit has been completed. Which of the following should the audit manager do FIRST?
Determine where delays have occurred
Assign additional resources to supplement the audit
Escalate to the audit committee
Extend the audit deadline
 The first thing that the audit manager should do when faced with a situation where only 60% of the audit has been completed and the due date is approaching is to determine where delays have occurred. This can help the audit manager to identify and analyze the root causes of the delays, such as unexpected issues, scope changes, resource constraints, communication problems, etc., and evaluate their impact on the audit objectives, scope, quality, and timeline. Based on this analysis, the audit manager can then decide on the best course of action to address the delays and complete the audit successfully. Assigning additional resources to supplement the audit is a possible option for resolving delays in an audit project, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the additional resources. Escalating to the audit committee is a possible option for communicating delays in an audit project and seeking guidance or support from senior management, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be necessary or appropriate depending on the severity and urgency of the delays. Extending the audit deadline is a possible option for accommodating delays in an audit project and ensuring sufficient time for completing the audit tasks and activities, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be possible or desirable depending on the contractual obligations, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements.Â
Which of the following represents the HIGHEST level of maturity of an information security program?
A training program is in place to promote information security awareness.
A framework is in place to measure risks and track effectiveness.
Information security policies and procedures are established.
The program meets regulatory and compliance requirements.
According to the ISACA’s Information Security Governance Guidance for Boards of Directors and Executive Management, the highest level of maturity of an information security program is Level 5: Optimized, which means that the program is aligned with the business objectives and strategy, and continuously monitors and improves its performance and effectiveness. A framework is in place to measure risks and track effectiveness, and the program is proactive, adaptive, and innovative.
The other options represent lower levels of maturity:
References:Â : ISACA. (2001). Information Security Governance Guidance for B
Which of the following MUST be completed as part of the annual audit planning process?
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Fieldwork
Risk assessment
Risk control matrix
 Risk assessment is a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, as it helps to identify and prioritize the areas that pose the highest risk to the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves analyzing the internal and external factors that affect the organization’s risk profile, evaluating the likelihood and impact of potential events or scenarios, assessing the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and determining the residual risk level. Based on the risk assessment results, the IS auditor can allocate resources and schedule audits accordingly. A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the critical business functions and processes that could be disrupted by a disaster or incident, and estimates the potential impact on the organization’s operations, reputation and finances. A BIA is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an input for risk assessment or as a subject for audit. Fieldwork is the phase of an audit where the IS auditor collects evidence to support the audit objectives and conclusions. Fieldwork is not part of the annual audit planning process, but it is part of each individual audit engagement. A risk control matrix is a tool that maps the risks identified in a risk assessment to the controls that mitigate them. A risk control matrix is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an output of risk assessment or as a tool for audit testing. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: Audit Planning.
An organization is planning an acquisition and has engaged an IS auditor lo evaluate the IT governance framework of the target company. Which of the following would be MOST helpful In determining the effectiveness of the framework?
Sell-assessment reports of IT capability and maturity
IT performance benchmarking reports with competitors
Recent third-party IS audit reports
Current and previous internal IS audit reports
Recent third-party IS audit reports would be most helpful in determining the effectiveness of the IT governance framework of the target company. IT governance is a framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for aligning IT strategy with business strategy. A third-party IS audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s IT governance framework by an external auditor. Recent third-party IS audit reports can provide reliable and unbiased evidence of the strengths, weaknesses, and maturity of the IT governance framework of the target company. The other options are not as helpful as recent third-party IS audit reports, as they may not be as comprehensive, accurate, or current as external audits. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94
An IS auditor finds that an organization's data loss prevention (DLP) system is configured to use vendor default settings to identify violations. The auditor's MAIN concern should be that:
violation reports may not be reviewed in a timely manner.
a significant number of false positive violations may be reported.
violations may not be categorized according to the organization's risk profile.
violation reports may not be retained according to the organization's risk profile.
A new system is being developed by a vendor for a consumer service organization. The vendor will provide its proprietary software once system development is completed Which of the following is the MOST important requirement to include In the vendor contract to ensure continuity?
Continuous 24/7 support must be available.
The vendor must have a documented disaster recovery plan (DRP) in place.
Source code for the software must be placed in escrow.
The vendor must train the organization's staff to manage the new software
Source code for the software must be placed in escrow is the most important requirement to include in the vendor contract to ensure continuity. Source code is the original code of a software program that can be modified or enhanced by programmers. Placing source code in escrow means depositing it with a trusted third party who can release it to the customer under certain conditions, such as vendor bankruptcy, breach of contract, or failure to provide support. This can help to ensure continuity of the software product and its maintenance in case of vendor unavailability or dispute. The other options are less important requirements to include in the vendor contract, as they may involve support availability, disaster recovery plan, or staff training. References:
In data warehouse (DW) management, what is the BEST way to prevent data quality issues caused by changes from a source system?
Configure data quality alerts to check variances between the data warehouse and the source system
Require approval for changes in the extract/Transfer/load (ETL) process between the two systems
Include the data warehouse in the impact analysis (or any changes m the source system
Restrict access to changes in the extract/transfer/load (ETL) process between the two systems
 Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis for any changes in the source system is the best way to prevent data quality issues caused by changes from a source system. A data warehouse is a centralized repository of integrated data from one or more source systems. An impact analysis is a technique of assessing the potential effects and consequences of a change on the existing system or environment. Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis can help to identify and mitigate any data quality issues that may arise from changes in the source system, such as data inconsistency, incompleteness, or inaccuracy. The other options are less effective ways to prevent data quality issues, as they may involve data quality alerts, approval for changes, or access restrictions. References:
Which of the following weaknesses would have the GREATEST impact on the effective operation of a perimeter firewall?
Use of stateful firewalls with default configuration
Ad hoc monitoring of firewall activity
Misconfiguration of the firewall rules
Potential back doors to the firewall software
During an audit of a financial application, it was determined that many terminated users' accounts were not disabled. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT step?
Perform substantive testing of terminated users' access rights.
Perform a review of terminated users' account activity
Communicate risks to the application owner.
Conclude that IT general controls ate ineffective.
The IS auditor’s next step after determining that many terminated users’ accounts were not disabled is to perform a review of terminated users’ account activity. This means that the IS auditor should check whether any of the terminated users’ accounts were accessed or used after their termination date, which could indicate unauthorized or fraudulent activity. The IS auditor should also assess the impact and risk of such activity on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and data. The other options are not as appropriate as performing a review of terminated users’ account activity, as they do not provide sufficient evidence or assurance of the extent and effect of the problem. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 240
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of an organization's incident response program?
Number of successful penetration tests
Percentage of protected business applications
Financial impact per security event
Number of security vulnerability patches
The best indicator of the effectiveness of an organization’s incident response program is the financial impact per security event. This metric measures the direct and indirect costs associated with security incidents, such as loss of revenue, reputation damage, legal fees, recovery expenses, and fines. By reducing the financial impact per security event, the organization can demonstrate that its incident response program is effective in mitigating the consequences of security breaches and restoring normal operations as quickly as possible. Number of successful penetration tests, percentage of protected business applications, and number of security vulnerability patches are indicators of the security posture of the organization, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the incident response program. References: ISACA Journal Article: Measuring Incident Response Effectiveness
Which of the following conditions would be of MOST concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk of a successful brute force attack against encrypted data at test?
Short key length
Random key generation
Use of symmetric encryption
Use of asymmetric encryption
The condition that would be of most concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk of a successful brute force attack against encrypted data at rest is short key length. A brute force attack is a method of breaking encryption by trying all possible combinations of keys until finding the correct one. The shorter the key length, the easier it is for an attacker to guess or crack the encryption. Random key generation, use of symmetric encryption, and use of asymmetric encryption are not conditions that would increase the risk of a successful brute force attack. In fact, random key generation can enhance security by preventing predictable patterns in key selection. Symmetric encryption and asymmetric encryption are different types of encryption that have their own advantages and disadvantages, but neither is inherently more vulnerable to brute force attacks than the other. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience
When auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, it is MOST Important for the IS auditor to:
compare the organization's strategic plan against industry best practice.
interview senior managers for their opinion of the IT function.
ensure an IT steering committee is appointed to monitor new IT projects.
evaluate deliverables of new IT initiatives against planned business services.
When auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, it is most important for the IS auditor to evaluate deliverables of new IT initiatives against planned business services. This can help the IS auditor to assess whether the IT initiatives are meeting the business needs and expectations, delivering value and benefits, and supporting the business objectives and goals. Comparing the organization’s strategic plan against industry best practice is a possible technique for auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, but it is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to do, as industry best practice may not be applicable or relevant to the specific context or situation of the organization. Interviewing senior managers for their opinion of the IT function is a possible technique for auditing the alignment of IT to the business strategy, but it is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to do, as senior managers’ opinions may be subjective or biased, and may not reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the IT function. Ensuring an IT steering committee is appointed to monitor new IT projects is a possible control for ensuring the alignment of IT to the business strategy, but it is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to do, as an IT steering committee may not be effective or efficient in monitoring new IT projects, and may not have sufficient authority or influence over the IT function.Â
Which of the following should an IS auditor consider the MOST significant risk associated with a new health records system that replaces a legacy system?
Staff were not involved in the procurement process, creating user resistance to the new system.
Data is not converted correctly, resulting in inaccurate patient records.
The deployment project experienced significant overruns, exceeding budget projections.
The new system has capacity issues, leading to slow response times for users.
 The most significant risk associated with a new health records system that replaces a legacy system is data not being converted correctly, resulting in inaccurate patient records. Data conversion is the process of transferring data from one format or system to another. Data conversion is a critical step in implementing a new health records system, as it ensures that the patient data are consistent, complete, accurate, and accessible in the new system. Data not being converted correctly may cause errors, discrepancies, or losses in patient records, which may have serious implications for patient safety, quality of care, legal compliance, and privacy protection. Staff not being involved in the procurement process, creating user resistance to the new system; the deployment project experiencing significant overruns, exceeding budget projections; and the new system having capacity issues, leading to slow response times for users are also risks associated with a new health records system implementation, but they are not as significant as data not being converted correctly. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 281.
Which of the following security risks can be reduced by a property configured network firewall?
SQL injection attacks
Denial of service (DoS) attacks
Phishing attacks
Insider attacks
 A network firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A network firewall can help reduce the risk of denial of service (DoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a system or network with excessive requests or traffic, by filtering or blocking unwanted or malicious packets. A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database query, by inserting malicious SQL statements into the input fields. A phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware, by sending fraudulent emails or messages that impersonate legitimate entities. An insider attack is a type of malicious activity that originates from within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information systems or data. A network firewall cannot prevent these types of attacks, as they rely on exploiting human or application weaknesses rather than network vulnerabilities.
During the planning stage of a compliance audit, an IS auditor discovers that a bank's inventory of compliance requirements does not include recent regulatory changes related to managing data risk. What should the auditor do FIRST?
Ask management why the regulatory changes have not been Included.
Discuss potential regulatory issues with the legal department
Report the missing regulatory updates to the chief information officer (CIO).
Exclude recent regulatory changes from the audit scope.
Asking management why the regulatory changes have not been included is the first thing that an IS auditor should do during the planning stage of a compliance audit. An IS auditor should inquire about the reasons for not updating the inventory of compliance requirements with recent regulatory changes related to managing data risk. This will help the IS auditor to understand whether there is a gap in awareness, communication, or implementation of compliance obligations within the organization. The other options are not the first things that an IS auditor should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on management’s response. References:
Which of the following provides IS audit professionals with the BEST source of direction for performing audit functions?
Audit charter
IT steering committee
Information security policy
Audit best practices
 The audit charter is the document that defines the purpose, authority and responsibility of the IS audit function. It provides IS audit professionals with the best source of direction for performing audit functions, as it establishes the scope, objectives, reporting lines, independence, accountability and resources of the IS audit function. The IT steering committee is a governance body that oversees the strategic alignment, prioritization and direction of IT initiatives, but it does not provide specific guidance for IS audit functions. The information security policy is a document that defines the rules and principles for protecting information assets in the organization, but it does not cover all aspects of IS audit functions. Audit best practices are general guidelines and recommendations for conducting effective and efficient audits, but they are not binding or authoritative sources of direction for IS audit functions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.1: Audit Charter.
An IS auditor is reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit. What should the auditor consider the MOST significant concern?
Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems.
There is a greater risk of system exploitation.
Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place.
Technical specifications are not documented.
 The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not be associated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level.Â
A new regulation in one country of a global organization has recently prohibited cross-border transfer of personal data. An IS auditor has been asked to determine the organization's level of exposure In the affected country. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in making this assessment?
Developing an inventory of all business entities that exchange personal data with the affected jurisdiction
Identifying data security threats in the affected jurisdiction
Reviewing data classification procedures associated with the affected jurisdiction
Identifying business processes associated with personal data exchange with the affected jurisdiction
 Identifying business processes associated with personal data exchange with the affected jurisdiction is the most helpful activity in making an assessment of the organization’s level of exposure in the affected country. An IS auditor should understand how the organization’s business operations and functions rely on or involve the cross-border transfer of personal data, as well as the potential impacts and risks of the new regulation on the business continuity and compliance. The other options are less helpful activities that may provide additional information or context for the assessment, but not its primary focus. References:
What is the Most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security management?
No dedicated security officer
No official charier for the information security management system
No periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities
No employee awareness training and education program
The most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security management is no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. Periodic assessments are essential for ensuring that the organization’s information security policies, procedures, standards, and controls are aligned with the current and emerging risks and threats that may affect its information assets. Without periodic assessments, the organization may not be aware of its actual security posture, gaps, or weaknesses, and may not be able to take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent potential security incidents. No dedicated security officer, no official charter for the information security management system, and no employee awareness training and education program are also findings that may indicate some deficiencies in the organization’s information security management, but they are not as critical as no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 343.
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's primary router access control list. Which of the following should result in a finding?
There are conflicting permit and deny rules for the IT group.
The network security group can change network address translation (NAT).
Individual permissions are overriding group permissions.
There is only one rule per group with access privileges.
This should result in a finding because it violates the best practice of setting rules for groups rather than users. According to one of the web search results1, using group permissions instead of individual permissions can simplify the management and maintenance of ACLs, reduce the risk of human errors, and ensure consistency and compliance. Individual permissions can create conflicts, confusion, and security gaps in the ACLs. Therefore, the IS auditor should report this as a finding and recommend using group permissions instead.
The performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure are BEST measured using a:
risk management review
control self-assessment (CSA).
service level agreement (SLA).
balanced scorecard.
 A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. An IS auditor can use an SLA to measure how well the IT infrastructure meets the business needs and objectives, as well as to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. The other options are not directly related to measuring the performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. References:
The GREATEST benefit of using a polo typing approach in software development is that it helps to:
minimize scope changes to the system.
decrease the time allocated for user testing and review.
conceptualize and clarify requirements.
Improve efficiency of quality assurance (QA) testing
 The greatest benefit of using a prototyping approach in software development is that it helps to conceptualize and clarify requirements. A prototyping approach is a method of creating a simplified or partial version of a software product to demonstrate its features and functionality. A prototyping approach can help to elicit, validate, and refine the requirements of the software product, as well as to obtain feedback from the users and stakeholders. The other options are not the greatest benefits of using a prototyping approach, but rather possible outcomes or advantages of doing so. References:
The IS auditor has recommended that management test a new system before using it in production mode. The BEST approach for management in developing a test plan is to use processing parameters that are:
randomly selected by a test generator.
provided by the vendor of the application.
randomly selected by the user.
simulated by production entities and customers.
The best approach for management in developing a test plan is to use processing parameters that are simulated by production entities and customers. This is because using realistic data and scenarios can help to evaluate the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system under actual operating conditions and expectations. Using processing parameters that are randomly selected by a test generator, provided by the vendor of the application, or randomly selected by the user may not be sufficient or representative of the production environment and may not reveal all the potential issues or defects of the new system. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 266.
During an audit of a multinational bank's disposal process, an IS auditor notes several findings. Which of the following should be the auditor's GREATEST concern?
Backup media are not reviewed before disposal.
Degaussing is used instead of physical shredding.
Backup media are disposed before the end of the retention period
Hardware is not destroyed by a certified vendor.
 During an audit of a multinational bank’s disposal process, an IS auditor should be most concerned about backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. This is because backup media contain sensitive and critical data that may be required for business continuity, legal compliance, or forensic purposes. Disposing backup media prematurely may result in data loss, unavailability, or corruption, which may have severe consequences for the bank’s reputation, operations, and security. Backup media not being reviewed before disposal, degaussing being used instead of physical shredding, and hardware not being destroyed by a certified vendor are also findings that may pose some risks to the bank’s disposal process, but they are not as critical as backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 302.
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance?
Ensure the third party allocates adequate resources to meet requirements.
Use analytics within the internal audit function
Conduct a capacity planning exercise
Utilize performance monitoring tools to verify service level agreements (SLAs)
The best way for an organization to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance is to utilize performance monitoring tools to verify service level agreements (SLAs). Performance monitoring tools are software or hardware devices that measure and report the performance of an application or system, such as speed, availability, reliability, etc. Performance monitoring tools can help mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, by allowing the organization to verify whether the third-party provider is meeting the SLAs, which are contracts or agreements that define the expected level and quality of service for an application or system. Performance monitoring tools can also help identify and resolve any performance issues or problems that may arise from the third-party application. Ensuring the third party allocates adequate resources to meet requirements is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the resources. Using analytics within the internal audit function is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be timely or relevant depending on the frequency, scope, and quality of the analytics. Conducting a capacity planning exercise is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be accurate or reliable depending on the assumptions, methods, and data used for the capacity planning.
An IS auditor performs a follow-up audit and learns the approach taken by the auditee to fix the findings differs from the agreed-upon approach confirmed during the last audit. Which of the following should be the auditor's NEXT course of action?
Evaluate the appropriateness of the remedial action taken.
Conduct a risk analysis incorporating the change.
Report results of the follow-up to the audit committee.
Inform senior management of the change in approach.
 The auditor’s next course of action should be to evaluate the appropriateness of the remedial action taken by the auditee. The auditor should assess whether the alternative approach taken by the auditee is effective, efficient, and aligned with the audit objectives and recommendations. The auditor should also consider the impact of the change on the audit scope, criteria, and risk assessment. Conducting a risk analysis incorporating the change, reporting results of the follow-up to the audit committee, and informing senior management of the change in approach are possible subsequent actions that the auditor may take after evaluating the appropriateness of the remedial action taken. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 1 - Information Systems Auditing Process
Which of the following BEST protects an organization's proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party?
Statement of work (SOW)
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
Privacy agreement
 A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) is the best way to protect an organization’s proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party. An NDA is a legal contract that binds the parties involved in a joint-development activity to keep confidential any information, data or materials that are shared or exchanged during the activity. An NDA specifies what constitutes confidential information, how it can be used, disclosed or protected, how long it remains confidential, what are the exceptions and remedies for breach of confidentiality, and other terms and conditions. An NDA can help to protect an organization’s proprietary code from being copied, modified, distributed or exploited by unauthorized parties without its consent or knowledge. The other options are not as effective as option B, as they do not address confidentiality issues specifically. A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, tasks, roles, responsibilities, timelines and costs of a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the quality, performance and availability standards and metrics for a service provided by one party to another party in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A privacy agreement is a document that defines how personal information collected from customers or users is collected, used, disclosed and protected by one party or both parties in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues related to proprietary code. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.2: Project Management Practices.
A now regulation requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification. Which of the following is the IS auditor’s BEST recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation?
Establish key performance indicators (KPls) for timely identification of security incidents.
Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling.
Enhance the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS).
Include the requirement in the incident management response plan.
The best recommendation for the IS auditor to facilitate compliance with the new regulation is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, processes, and procedures for responding to security incidents. By including the new regulation in the plan, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization is aware of the reporting obligation, has a clear workflow for notifying the regulator within 24 hours, and has the necessary documentation and evidence to support the report.
The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan:
Which of the following is the BEST source of information for an IS auditor to use as a baseline to assess the adequacy of an organization's privacy policy?
Historical privacy breaches and related root causes
Globally accepted privacy best practices
Local privacy standards and regulations
Benchmark studies of similar organizations
The best source of information for an IS auditor to use as a baseline to assess the adequacy of an organization’s privacy policy is the local privacy standards and regulations. Privacy standards and regulations are legal requirements that specify how personal data should be collected, processed, stored, shared, and disposed of by organizations. By using local privacy standards and regulations as a baseline, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization’s privacy policy complies with the applicable laws and protects the rights and interests of data subjects. Historical privacy breaches and related root causes, globally accepted privacy best practices, and benchmark studies of similar organizations are useful sources of information for improving an organization’s privacy policy, but they are not as authoritative and relevant as local privacy standards and regulations. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 2 - Governance and Management of Information Technology
In order to be useful, a key performance indicator (KPI) MUST
be approved by management.
be measurable in percentages.
be changed frequently to reflect organizational strategy.
have a target value.
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a quantifiable measure of performance over time for a specific objective1. KPIs help organizations and teams track their progress and achievements towards their strategic goals. To be useful, a KPI must have a target value, which is the desired level of performance or outcome that the organization or team aims to achieve. A target value provides a clear direction and a benchmark for measuring success or failure. Without a target value, a KPI is meaningless, as it does not indicate whether the performance is good or bad, or how far or close the organization or team is from reaching their objective.
Which of the following activities provides an IS auditor with the MOST insight regarding potential single person dependencies that might exist within the organization?
Reviewing vacation patterns
Reviewing user activity logs
Interviewing senior IT management
Mapping IT processes to roles
Mapping IT processes to roles is an activity that provides an IS auditor with the most insight regarding potential single person dependencies that might exist within the organization. Single person dependencies occur when only one person has the knowledge, skills, or access rights to perform a critical IT function. Mapping IT processes to roles can help to identify such dependencies and assess their impact on the continuity and security of IT operations. The other activities do not provide as much insight into single person dependencies, as they do not show the relationship between IT processes and roles. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94
Which of the following will MOST likely compromise the control provided By a digital signature created using RSA encryption?
Reversing the hash function using the digest
Altering the plaintext message
Deciphering the receiver's public key
Obtaining the sender's private key
 A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures.Â
When planning an audit to assess application controls of a cloud-based system, it is MOST important tor the IS auditor to understand the.
architecture and cloud environment of the system.
business process supported by the system.
policies and procedures of the business area being audited.
availability reports associated with the cloud-based system.
 The business process supported by the system is the most important factor for an IS auditor to understand when planning an audit to assess application controls of a cloud-based system. An IS auditor should have a clear understanding of the business objectives, requirements, and risks of the process, as well as the expected outputs and outcomes of the system. This will help the IS auditor to determine the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit, as well as to identify and evaluate the key application controls that ensure the effectiveness, efficiency, and reliability of the process. The other options are less important factors that may provide additional information or context for the audit, but not its primary focus. References:
An information systems security officer's PRIMARY responsibility for business process applications is to:
authorize secured emergency access
approve the organization's security policy
ensure access rules agree with policies
create role-based rules for each business process
Ensuring access rules agree with policies is an information systems security officer’s primary responsibility for business process applications. An information systems security officer should verify that the access controls implemented for the business process applications are consistent with the organization’s security policy and objectives. The other options are not the primary responsibility of an information systems security officer, but rather the tasks of an application owner, a senior management, or a business analyst. References:
Which of the following is the BEST way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse to ensure the organization's information cannot be accessed?
Re-partitioning
Degaussing
Formatting
Data wiping
The best way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse to ensure the organization’s information cannot be accessed is data wiping. Data wiping is a process that overwrites the data on the hard disk with random or meaningless patterns, making it unrecoverable by any software or hardware methods. Data wiping can provide a high level of security and assurance that the organization’s information is permanently erased from the hard disk, and that it cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties or malicious actors.
Re-partitioning is not a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but rather a way to organize the hard disk into different logical sections or volumes. Re-partitioning does not erase the data on the hard disk, but only changes the structure and allocation of the disk space. Re-partitioning may make the data inaccessible to the operating system, but not to other tools or methods that can scan or recover the data from the disk sectors.
Degaussing is a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but only for magnetic hard disks, not solid state drives (SSDs). Degaussing is a process that exposes the hard disk to a strong magnetic field, which disrupts and destroys the magnetic alignment of the data on the disk platters. Degaussing can effectively erase the data on magnetic hard disks, but it can also damage or render unusable the electronic components of the hard disk, such as the read/write heads or circuit boards. Degaussing also does not work on SSDs, which store data using flash memory cells, not magnetic media.
Formatting is not a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but rather a way to prepare the hard disk for use by an operating system. Formatting is a process that creates a file system on the hard disk, which defines how the data is stored and accessed on the disk. Formatting does not erase the data on the hard disk, but only deletes the file system metadata and marks the disk space as available for new data. Formatting may make the data invisible to the operating system, but not to other tools or methods that can restore or recover the data from the disk sectors.
References:
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) system?
Compliance testing
Stop-or-go sampling
Substantive testing
Variable sampling
Substantive testing © provides the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s security information and event management (SIEM) system, because it is a type of audit testing that directly examines the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of the data and transactions recorded in the logs. Substantive testing can involve various methods, such as re-performance, inspection, observation, inquiry, or computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs), to verify the existence, occurrence, valuation, ownership, presentation, and disclosure of the log data1. Substantive testing can also detect any errors, omissions, alterations, or manipulations of the log data that may indicate fraud or misstatement2.
Compliance testing (A) is not the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system, because it is a type of audit testing that evaluates the design and effectiveness of the internal controls that are implemented to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and procedures. Compliance testing can involve various methods, such as walkthroughs, questionnaires, checklists, or flowcharts, to assess the adequacy, consistency, and operation of the internal controls1. Compliance testing can provide assurance that the log data are generated and processed in accordance with the established rules and standards, but it does not directly verify the accuracy and reliability of the log data itself2.
Stop-or-go sampling (B) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to select a sample from a population for testing. Stop-or-go sampling is a sequential sampling technique that allows auditors to stop testing before reaching the predetermined sample size if the results are satisfactory or conclusive. Stop-or-go sampling can reduce the audit cost and time by avoiding unnecessary testing, but it can also increase the sampling risk and uncertainty by relying on a smaller sample3. Stop-or-go sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.
Variable sampling (D) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to estimate a numerical characteristic of a population for testing. Variable sampling is a statistical sampling technique that allows auditors to measure the amount or rate of error or deviation in a population by using quantitative methods. Variable sampling can provide precise and objective results by using mathematical formulas and confidence intervals4. Variable sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.
References:
An organization has established hiring policies and procedures designed specifically to ensure network administrators are well qualified Which type of control is in place?
Detective
Compensating
Corrective
Directive
 The type of control that is in place when an organization has established hiring policies and procedures designed specifically to ensure network administrators are well qualified is directive. Directive controls are those that guide or direct the actions of individuals or groups to achieve a desired outcome. Directive controls can also help to prevent or reduce the occurrence of undesirable events. Hiring policies and procedures are examples of directive controls that aim to ensure that only qualified and competent personnel are employed to perform IT-related tasks. References:
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to review when determining whether IT investments are providing value to tie business?
Return on investment (ROI)
Business strategy
Business cases
Total cost of ownership (TCO)
The answer B is correct because the most important thing for an IS auditor to review when determining whether IT investments are providing value to the business is the business strategy. The business strategy is the plan or direction that guides the organization’s decisions and actions to achieve its goals and objectives. The business strategy defines the organization’s vision, mission, values, competitive advantage, target market, value proposition, and key performance indicators (KPIs).
IT investments are the expenditures or costs incurred by the organization to acquire, develop, maintain, or improve its IT assets, such as hardware, software, network, data, or services. IT investments can help the organization to support its business processes, operations, functions, and capabilities. IT investments can also help the organization to create or enhance its products, services, or solutions for its customers or stakeholders.
To determine whether IT investments are providing value to the business, an IS auditor needs to review how well the IT investments align with and contribute to the business strategy. Alignment means that the IT investments are consistent and compatible with the business strategy, and that they support and enable the achievement of the strategic goals and objectives. Contribution means that the IT investments are effective and efficient in delivering the expected outcomes and benefits for the business, and that they generate a positive return on investment (ROI) or value for money.
An IS auditor can use various methods or frameworks to review the alignment and contribution of IT investments to the business strategy, such as:
The other options are not as important as option B. Return on investment (ROI) (option A) is a metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns with its costs or expenses. ROI can help an IS auditor to quantify the value of IT investments for the business, but it does not capture all aspects of value, such as quality, satisfaction, or impact. ROI also depends on how well the IT investments align with the business strategy in the first place. Business cases (option C) are documents that justify and support a proposed project or initiative by describing its objectives, scope, benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. Business cases can help an IS auditor to understand the rationale and expectations for IT investments, but they do not guarantee that the IT investments will actually deliver the desired value for the business. Business cases also need to be aligned with the business strategy to ensure their relevance and validity. Total cost of ownership (TCO) (option D) is a metric that measures the total costs incurred by an organization to acquire, operate, maintain, and dispose of an IT asset over its life cycle. TCO can help an IS auditor to estimate the financial impact of IT investments for the business, but it does not reflect the benefits or outcomes of IT investments, nor does it indicate how well the IT investments support or enable the business strategy.
References:
Which of the following is MOST effective for controlling visitor access to a data center?
Visitors are escorted by an authorized employee
Pre-approval of entry requests
Visitors sign in at the front desk upon arrival
Closed-circuit television (CCTV) is used to monitor the facilities
The most effective way for controlling visitor access to a data center is to ensure that visitors are escorted by an authorized employee, as this prevents unauthorized or malicious actions by the visitors and provides accountability and supervision. Pre-approval of entry requests, visitors signing in at the front desk upon arrival, and closed-circuit television (CCTV) are also useful measures, but they are not as effective as escorting visitors, as they do not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious actions by the visitors in real time. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.1: Physical Access Controls1
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the information systems acquisition, development, and implementation process?
Data owners are not trained on the use of data conversion tools.
A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise was not conducted.
There is no system documentation available for review.
System deployment is routinely performed by contractors.
Recovery facilities providing a redundant combination of Internet connections to the local communications loop is an example of which type of telecommunications continuity?
Voice recovery
Alternative routing
Long-haul network diversity
Last-mile circuit protection
Recovery facilities providing a redundant combination of Internet connections to the local communications loop is an example of last-mile circuit protection. Last-mile circuit protection is a type of telecommunications continuity that ensures the availability and redundancy of the final segment of the network that connects the end-user to the service provider. The local communications loop, also known as the local loop or subscriber line, is the physical link between the customer premises and the nearest central office or point of presence of the service provider. By having multiple Internet connections from different providers or technologies, such as cable, DSL, fiber, wireless, or satellite, the recovery facilities can avoid losing connectivity in case one of the connections fails or is disrupted by a disaster5.
References:
An IS auditor concludes that logging and monitoring mechanisms within an organization are ineffective because critical servers are not included within the central log repository. Which of the following audit procedures would have MOST likely identified this exception?
Inspecting a sample of alerts generated from the central log repository
Comparing a list of all servers from the directory server against a list of all servers present in the central log repository
Inspecting a sample of alert settings configured in the central log repository
Comparing all servers included in the current central log repository with the listing used for the prior-year audit
The audit procedure that would have most likely identified the exception of critical servers not included in the central log repository is to compare a list of all servers from the directory server against a list of all servers present in the central log repository. This would allow the IS auditor to detect any discrepancies or omissions in the central log repository. The other audit procedures (A, C and D) would not be effective in identifying this exception, as they would only focus on the alerts generated, the alert settings configured, or the servers included in the previous year’s audit, which may not reflect the current state of the central log repository. References: IS Audit and Assurance Guideline 2202: Evidence Collection Techniques, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Logging and Monitoring
A transaction processing system interfaces with the general ledger. Data analytics has identified that some transactions are being recorded twice in the general ledger. While management states a system fix has been implemented, what should the IS auditor recommend to validate the interface is working in the future?
Perform periodic reconciliations.
Ensure system owner sign-off for the system fix.
Conduct functional testing.
Improve user acceptance testing (UAT).
 A transaction processing system (TPS) is a system that captures, processes, and stores data related to business transactions1. A general ledger is a system that records the financial transactions of an organization in different accounts2. An interface is a connection point between two systems that allows data exchange3. A system fix is a change or update to a system that resolves a problem or improves its functionality4.
The IS auditor should recommend to perform periodic reconciliations to validate the interface between the TPS and the general ledger is working in the future. A reconciliation is a process of comparing and verifying the data in two systems to ensure accuracy and consistency1. By performing periodic reconciliations, the IS auditor can detect and correct any errors or discrepancies in the data, such as duplicate transactions, missing transactions, or incorrect amounts. This way, the IS auditor can ensure the reliability and integrity of the financial data in both systems.
The other options are not as effective as periodic reconciliations to validate the interface. System owner sign-off for the system fix is a form of approval that indicates the system owner agrees with the change and its expected outcome4. However, this does not guarantee that the system fix will work as intended or prevent future errors. Conducting functional testing is a process of verifying that the system performs its intended functions correctly and meets its requirements4. However, this is usually done before or after the system fix is implemented, not on an ongoing basis. Improving user acceptance testing (UAT) is a process of evaluating whether the system meets the needs and expectations of the end users4. However, this is also done before or after the system fix is implemented, not on an ongoing basis. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
References:
An organization's senior management thinks current security controls may be excessive and requests an IS auditor's advice on how to assess the adequacy of current measures. What is the auditor's BEST recommendation to management?
Perform correlation analysis between incidents and investments.
Downgrade security controls on low-risk systems.
Introduce automated security monitoring tools.
Re-evaluate the organization's risk and control framework.
A risk and control framework is a set of principles, processes, and tools that guide an organization in identifying, assessing, managing, and monitoring the risks and controls that affect its objectives and performance. A risk and control framework helps an organization to align its risk appetite and tolerance with its strategy, culture, and values, and to ensure that its security controls are appropriate, effective, and efficient1.
Re-evaluating the organization’s risk and control framework is the best recommendation to management because it can help them to:
Re-evaluating the organization’s risk and control framework can help management to determine whether the current security controls are excessive or not, and to make informed and rational decisions on how to adjust them accordingly.
A bank has a combination of corporate customer accounts (higher monetary value) and small business accounts (lower monetary value) as part of online banking. Which of the following is the BEST sampling approach for an IS auditor to use for these accounts?
Difference estimation sampling
Stratified mean per unit sampling
Customer unit sampling
Unstratified mean per unit sampling
Stratified mean per unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that divides the population into subgroups (strata) based on some characteristic, such as monetary value, and then selects a sample from each stratum using mean per unit sampling. Mean per unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that estimates the total value of a population by multiplying the average value of the sample items by the number of items in the population. Stratified mean per unit sampling is suitable for populations that have a high variability or a skewed distribution, such as the bank accounts in this question. By stratifying the population, the auditor can reduce the sampling error and increase the precision of the estimate.
Difference estimation sampling (option A) is not the best sampling approach for these accounts. Difference estimation sampling is a method of audit sampling that estimates the total error or misstatement in a population by multiplying the average difference between the book value and the audited value of the sample items by the number of items in the population. Difference estimation sampling is suitable for populations that have a low variability and a symmetrical distribution, which is not the case for the bank accounts in this question.
Customer unit sampling (option C) is not a sampling approach, but a type of monetary unit sampling. Monetary unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that selects sample items based on their monetary value, rather than their physical units. Customer unit sampling is a variation of monetary unit sampling that treats each customer account as a single unit, regardless of how many transactions or balances it contains. Customer unit sampling may be appropriate for testing existence or occurrence assertions, but not for estimating total values.
Unstratified mean per unit sampling (option D) is not the best sampling approach for these accounts. Unstratified mean per unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that applies mean per unit sampling to the entire population without dividing it into subgroups. Unstratified mean per unit sampling may result in a larger sample size and a lower precision than stratified mean per unit sampling, especially for populations that have a high variability or a skewed distribution, such as the bank accounts in this question.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References:
in a post-implantation Nation review of a recently purchased system it is MOST important for the iS auditor to determine whether the:
stakeholder expectations were identified
vendor product offered a viable solution.
user requirements were met.
test scenarios reflected operating activities.
The most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system is whether the user requirements were met. User requirements are the specifications and expectations of the users of the system, such as the features, functions, performance, quality, and security of the system. User requirements are usually defined and documented in the early stages of the system acquisition process, such as in the request for proposal (RFP) or the contract. User requirements are also used as the basis for testing and evaluating the system before and after implementation.
Determining whether the user requirements were met can help the IS auditor assess whether the system is fit for purpose and delivers value and benefits to the users and the organization. Determining whether the user requirements were met can also help the IS auditor identify any gaps, issues, or problems with the system that may affect its functionality, usability, or reliability. Determining whether the user requirements were met can also help the IS auditor provide feedback and recommendations for improvement or enhancement of the system.
Stakeholder expectations were identified is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system, but rather a prerequisite or input for it. Stakeholder expectations are the needs and wants of the various parties who have an interest or influence in the system, such as users, managers, customers, suppliers, regulators, or auditors. Stakeholder expectations are usually identified and analyzed in the initial stages of the system acquisition process, such as in the feasibility study or the business case. Stakeholder expectations are also used as inputs for defining and prioritizing the user requirements.
Vendor product offered a viable solution is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system, but rather an outcome or result of it. Vendor product is the system that is provided by an external supplier or service provider to meet the user requirements. Vendor product offered a viable solution means that the vendor product satisfied or exceeded the user requirements and delivered value and benefits to the users and organization. Vendor product offered a viable solution can be determined by comparing and evaluating the user requirements and the vendor product performance and quality.
Test scenarios reflected operating activities is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system, but rather a factor or criterion for it. Test scenarios are sets of conditions or situations that are used to test and verify whether the system meets the user requirements. Test scenarios reflected operating activities means that test scenarios simulated or replicated real-world scenarios that occur during normal operations of business processes or functions that use or depend on the system. Test scenarios reflected operating activities can help ensure that test results are valid, reliable, and relevant.
References:
An organization is migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model in a private cloud. Who is PRIMARILY responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application's operating system?
The cloud provider's external auditor
The cloud provider
The operating system vendor
The organization
 The organization is primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application’s operating system when migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model in a private cloud. This is because in an IaaS model, the cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure that they lease to their customers, such as servers, storage, and networks, while the customer is responsible for the security of the areas of the cloud infrastructure over which they have control, such as operating systems, middleware, and applications. Therefore, the organization needs to ensure that the operating system is properly configured, patched, hardened, and monitored to protect the HR application from unauthorized access or malicious attacks.
The other options are not primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application’s operating system. The cloud provider’s external auditor is not responsible for any security configurations, but rather for verifying and reporting on the cloud provider’s compliance with relevant standards and regulations. The cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure, but not for the operating system or any software installed on it by the customer. The operating system vendor is responsible for providing updates and patches for the operating system, but not for configuring or securing it according to the customer’s needs.
References:
Which type of attack poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's most sensitive data?
Password attack
Eavesdropping attack
Insider attack
Spear phishing attack
An insider attack poses the greatest risk to an organization’s most sensitive data. An insider attack is a type of cyberattack that is carried out by someone who has legitimate access to the organization’s network, systems, or data, such as an employee, contractor, or business partner. An insider attack can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can have various motives, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, sabotage, or curiosity.
An insider attack poses the greatest risk to an organization’s most sensitive data because:
According to the 2023 Cost of Insider Threats Global Report by Ponemon Institute and ObserveITÂ 1, the average annual cost of insider threats for organizations worldwide was $11.45 million in 2022, a 31% increase from 2018. The report also found that the average number of incidents per organization was 77 in 2022, a 47% increase from 2018. The report classified insider threats into three categories: careless or negligent employees or contractors, criminal or malicious insiders, and credential thieves. The report revealed that careless or negligent insiders were the most common and costly type of insider threat, accounting for 62% of all incidents and $4.58 million in costs.
The other options are not the greatest risk to an organization’s most sensitive data, although they can still pose significant threats.
A password attack is a type of cyberattack that attempts to guess or crack a user’s password to gain unauthorized access to their account or system. A password attack can use various methods, such as brute force, dictionary, rainbow table, phishing, keylogging, or social engineering. A password attack can compromise the security and privacy of the user’s data and information. However, a password attack can be prevented or mitigated by using strong and unique passwords, changing passwords frequently, enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA), and avoiding clicking on suspicious links or attachments.
An eavesdropping attack is a type of cyberattack that intercepts or monitors the communication between two parties without their knowledge or consent. An eavesdropping attack can use various techniques, such as wiretapping, packet sniffing, man-in-the-middle (MITM), or side-channel. An eavesdropping attack can expose the content and metadata of the communication, such as messages, files, voice calls, emails, etc. However, an eavesdropping attack can be prevented or mitigated by using encryption, authentication, digital signatures, VPNs (virtual private networks), or secure protocols.
A spear phishing attack is a type of phishing attack that targets a specific individual or group with personalized and convincing emails that appear to come from a trusted source. A spear phishing attack aims to trick the recipient into clicking on a malicious link or attachment that can infect their device with malware or steal their credentials or data. A spear phishing attack can compromise the security and privacy of the recipient’s data and information. However, a spear phishing attack can be prevented or mitigated by verifying the sender’s identity and email address, checking the email content for spelling and grammar errors, hovering over links before clicking on them (or not clicking at all), scanning attachments for viruses before opening them (or not opening at all), and reporting suspicious emails to IT security staff.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of a quality assurance (QA) team?
Creating test data to facilitate the user acceptance testing (IJAT) process
Managing employee onboarding processes and background checks
Advising the steering committee on quality management issues and remediation efforts
Implementing procedures to facilitate adoption of quality management best practices
A quality assurance (QA) team is a group of professionals who are responsible for ensuring that the products or services of an organization meet the quality standards and expectations of customers and stakeholders1. A QA team performs various activities, such as:
One of the primary responsibilities of a QA team is to implement procedures to facilitate adoption of quality management best practices. Quality management best practices are the methods, techniques, or tools that have been proven to be effective in achieving and maintaining high-quality standards in an organization2. Some examples of quality management best practices are:
By implementing procedures to facilitate adoption of quality management best practices, a QA team can help the organization achieve the following benefits:
The other options are not primary responsibilities of a QA team. Creating test data to facilitate the user acceptance testing (UAT) process is a task that can be performed by a QA team, but it is not their main duty. UAT is a process in which the end users test the product or service to ensure that it meets their needs and expectations before it is released or deployed3. A QA team can create test data to simulate real-world scenarios and conditions for UAT, but they are not directly involved in conducting UAT. Managing employee onboarding processes and background checks is not a responsibility of a QA team. Employee onboarding is a process in which new hires are integrated into the organization, while background checks are screenings that verify the identity, credentials, and history of potential employees4. These processes are usually handled by the human resources department or an external agency, not by a QA team. Advising the steering committee on quality management issues and remediation efforts is not a primary responsibility of a QA team. A steering committee is a group of senior executives or managers who provide strategic direction, oversight, and support for a project or program5. A QA team can advise the steering committee on quality management issues and remediation efforts, but they are not accountable for making decisions or implementing actions. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
References:
Which of the following is a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer?
Using passwords to allow authorized users to send documents to the printer
Requiring a key code to be entered on the printer to produce hard copy
Encrypting the data stream between the user's computer and the printer
Producing a header page with classification level for printed documents
Requiring a key code to be entered on the printer to produce hard copy is a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because requiring a key code adds an extra layer of security and authentication to the printing process, ensuring that only authorized users can access and retrieve the printed documents. Requiring a key code also prevents unauthorized users from viewing or tampering with the documents while they are in the printer’s queue or output tray1.
Using passwords to allow authorized users to send documents to the printer is not a sufficient method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because passwords only protect the transmission of the documents from the user’s computer to the printer, but they do not protect the documents once they are printed. Passwords can also be compromised or forgotten by users, making them vulnerable to unauthorized access or denial of service2.
Encrypting the data stream between the user’s computer and the printer is not a sufficient method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because encryption only protects the confidentiality and integrity of the documents while they are in transit, but they do not protect the documents once they are printed. Encryption can also introduce performance issues or compatibility problems with different printers or devices2.
Producing a header page with classification level for printed documents is not a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because producing a header page only informs the users about the sensitivity and handling of the documents, but it does not prevent unauthorized users from accessing or viewing them. Producing a header page can also waste paper and ink, as well as increase the risk of misplacing or mixing up the documents
An organization plans to replace its nightly batch processing backup to magnetic tape with real-time replication to a second data center. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with this change?
Version control issues
Reduced system performance
Inability to recover from cybersecurity attacks
Increase in IT investment cost
Real-time replication to a second data center means that any changes made to the primary data center are immediately copied to the secondary data center. This can improve data availability and performance, but also introduces the risk of propagating malicious or erroneous changes to the backup data center. If a cybersecurity attack compromises the primary data center, it may also affect the secondary data center, making it difficult or impossible to recover from the attack using the replicated data. Therefore, option C is the greatest risk associated with this change.
Option A is not correct because version control issues are more likely to occur with batch processing backup, which may create inconsistencies between different versions of the data. Option B is not correct because real-time replication may reduce system performance at the primary data center, but it may also improve system performance at the secondary data center by reducing latency and network traffic. Option D is not correct because although real-time replication may increase IT investment cost, this is not a risk but a trade-off that the organization has to consider.
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An IS auditor finds ad hoc vulnerability scanning is in place with no clear alignment to the organization's wider security threat and vulnerability management program.
Which of the following would BEST enable the organization to work toward improvement in this area?
Implementing security logging to enhance threat and vulnerability management
Maintaining a catalog of vulnerabilities that may impact mission-critical systems
Using a capability maturity model to identify a path to an optimized program
Outsourcing the threat and vulnerability management function to a third party
The best way to enable the organization to work toward improvement in its security threat and vulnerability management program is to use a capability maturity model to identify a path to an optimized program. A capability maturity model is a framework that helps organizations assess their current level of performance and maturity in a specific domain, and provides guidance and best practices to achieve higher levels of excellence12. A capability maturity model for vulnerability management can help the organization to evaluate its current practices, identify gaps and weaknesses, and implement improvement actions based on the defined criteria and objectives34.
References
1: What is a Capability Maturity Model?1Â 2: Capability Maturity Model - Wikipedia2Â 3: Vulnerability Management Maturity Model - SANS Institute4Â 4: 5 Stages Of Vulnerability Management Maturity Model - SecPod Blog3
Afire alarm system has been installed in the computer room The MOST effective location for the fire alarm control panel would be inside the
computer room closest to the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) module
computer room closest to the server computers
system administrators’ office
booth used by the building security personnel
A fire alarm system is a device that detects and alerts people of the presence of fire or smoke in a building. A fire alarm control panel is the central unit that monitors and controls the fire alarm system. The most effective location for the fire alarm control panel would be inside the booth used by the building security personnel. This is because:
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An IS auditor has been asked to advise on measures to improve IT governance within the organization. Which of the following IS the BEST recommendation?
Benchmark organizational performance against industry peers
Implement key performance indicators (KPIs).
Require executive management to draft IT strategy
Implement annual third-party audits.
The best recommendation to improve IT governance within the organization is C. Require executive management to draft IT strategy. IT governance is the process of establishing and maintaining the policies, roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities for managing technology risks within an organization1. One of the key objectives of IT governance is to ensure alignment and integration between technology and business strategies, leading to optimal outcomes and value creation1. Therefore, it is essential that executive management, who are responsible for setting the vision, mission, and goals of the organization, are also involved in drafting the IT strategy that supports and enables them. By requiring executive management to draft IT strategy, the organization can:
Which of the following approaches will ensure recovery time objectives (RTOs) are met for an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
Performing a cyber resilience test
Performing a full interruption test
Performing a tabletop test
Performing a parallel test
A full interruption test is the most realistic and reliable way to ensure that recovery time objectives (RTOs) are met for an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP). RTOs are the maximum amount of time that a business can tolerate being offline after a disaster. A full interruption test involves shutting down the primary site and switching over to the backup site, simulating a real disaster scenario. This test can measure the actual time it takes to restore the systems, applications, and functions that are critical for the business continuity. A full interruption test can also reveal any issues or gaps in the DRP that might affect the recovery process.
The other options are not as effective as a full interruption test for ensuring RTOs are met. A cyber resilience test is a type of DR test that focuses on the ability to withstand and recover from cyberattacks. It does not necessarily cover other types of disasters or test the entire DRP. A tabletop test is a low-impact DR test that involves a walkthrough of the DRP with the key stakeholders and staff. It does not involve any actual switching over or testing of the backup systems. A parallel test is a type of DR test that involves running the backup systems alongside the primary systems, without disrupting the normal operations. It does not measure the time it takes to switch over or resume operations at the backup site.
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An IS auditor finds that periodic reviews of read-only users for a reporting system are not being performed. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT course of action?
Review the list of end users and evaluate for authorization.
Report this control process weakness to senior management.
Verify managements approval for this exemption
Obtain a verbal confirmation from IT for this exemption.
The IS auditor’s next course of action should be to report this control process weakness to senior management, as it may indicate a lack of oversight and accountability for the reporting system. Read-only users may have access to sensitive or confidential information that should be restricted or monitored. Periodic reviews of read-only users are a good practice to ensure that the access rights are still valid and appropriate for the users’ roles and responsibilities. Reporting this weakness to senior management will also allow them to take corrective actions or implement compensating controls if needed.
Option A is incorrect because reviewing the list of end users and evaluating for authorization is not the IS auditor’s responsibility, but rather the system owner’s or administrator’s. The IS auditor should only verify that such reviews are performed and documented by the responsible parties.
Option C is incorrect because verifying management’s approval for this exemption is not sufficient to address the control process weakness. Even if there is a valid reason for not performing periodic reviews of read-only users, the IS auditor should still report this as a potential risk and recommend mitigating controls.
Option D is incorrect because obtaining a verbal confirmation from IT for this exemption is not adequate evidence or documentation. The IS auditor should obtain written approval from management and verify that it is aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
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Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern during a review of internal audit quality assurance (QA) and continuous improvement processes?
The audit program does not involve periodic engagement with external assessors.
Quarterly reports are not distributed to the audit committee.
Results of corrective actions are not tracked consistently.
Substantive testing is not performed during the assessment phase of some audits.
According to the ISACA CISA documentation, one of the requirements for internal audit quality assurance (QA) and continuous improvement processes is to have an external assessment at least once every five years by a qualified, independent reviewer or review team from outside the organization1. This is to ensure that the internal audit activity conforms to the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (the Standards) and the Code of Ethics, and to identify opportunities for improvement2. Therefore, the lack of periodic engagement with external assessors would present the greatest concern during a review of internal audit QA and continuous improvement processes.
Which of the following should be considered when examining fire suppression systems as part of a data center environmental controls review?
Installation manuals
Onsite replacement availability
Insurance coverage
Maintenance procedures
The correct answer is D. Maintenance procedures should be considered when examining fire suppression systems as part of a data center environmental controls review. Fire suppression systems are critical for protecting the data center equipment and personnel from fire hazards. Therefore, they should be regularly maintained and tested to ensure their proper functioning and compliance with safety standards. Maintenance procedures should include inspection, cleaning, replacement, and repair of the fire suppression system components, as well as documentation of the maintenance activities and results. Installation manuals, onsite replacement availability, and insurance coverage are not directly related to the fire suppression system performance and effectiveness, and therefore are not relevant for the audit review. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, page 403.
When assessing whether an organization's IT performance measures are comparable to other organizations in the same industry, which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?
IT governance frameworks
Benchmarking surveys
Utilization reports
Balanced scorecard
 IT performance measures are indicators of how well an organization is achieving its IT goals and objectives. Benchmarking surveys are useful tools for comparing an organization’s IT performance measures with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector. Benchmarking surveys can provide insights into best practices, gaps, trends, and opportunities for improvement. IT governance frameworks, utilization reports, and balanced scorecards are not as helpful for comparing IT performance measures across organizations, as they may vary in scope, methodology, and terminology. References: IT Resources | Knowledge & Insights | ISACA, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
Several unattended laptops containing sensitive customer data were stolen from personnel offices Which of the following would be an IS auditor's BEST recommendation to protect data in case of recurrence?
Encrypt the disk drive.
Require two-factor authentication
Enhance physical security
Require the use of cable locks
According to the CISA - Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide1, the correct answer to your question is A. Encrypt the disk drive. This is because encryption is a logical security measure that can protect data even if the physical device is stolen or lost. Encryption makes the data unreadable and inaccessible without the proper key or password. The other options are not as effective as encryption in this scenario. Two-factor authentication is a user authentication method that requires two pieces of evidence to verify the user’s identity, such as a password and a code sent to a phone. However, this does not prevent unauthorized access to the data if the laptop is already logged in or if the attacker can bypass the authentication. Enhancing physical security is a preventive measure that can reduce the risk of theft, but it does not guarantee that theft will not occur or that the data will be safe if it does. Requiring the use of cable locks is another preventive measure that can deter thieves, but it can also be easily cut or removed by a determined attacker.
Which of the following is the BEST sampling method to use when relatively few errors are expected to be found in a population?
Variable sampling
Judgmental sampling
Stop-or-go sampling
Discovery sampling
Discovery sampling is a type of statistical sampling that’s used when the expected error rate in the population is very low1. This method is designed to discover at least one instance of an attribute or condition in a population1. It’s often used in auditing to uncover fraud or noncompliance with rules and regulations1.
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An IS auditor has been asked to review an event log aggregation system to ensure risk management practices have been applied. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the auditor?
Log feeds are uploaded via batch process.
Completeness testing has not been performed on the log data.
The log data is not normalized.
Data encryption standards have not been considered.
The IS auditor should be most concerned if completeness testing has not been performed on the log data, as this could indicate that some logs are missing, corrupted, or tampered with, and that the log aggregation system is not reliable or accurate12. Completeness testing is a process of verifying that all the logs generated by the source systems are successfully collected, transferred, and stored by the log aggregation system, and that there are no gaps or inconsistencies in the log data34. Completeness testing is essential for ensuring the integrity and validity of the log data, and for supporting the risk management practices of the organization.
References
1: Log Aggregation: How it Works, Methods, and Tools - Exabeam2Â 2: Log Aggregation & Monitoring Relation in Cybersecurity4Â 3: Log Aggregation: What It Is & How It Works | Datadog3Â 4: Data Flow Testing - GeeksforGeeks1
Which of the following BEST supports the effectiveness of a compliance program?
Implementing an awareness plan regarding compliance regulation requirements
Implementing a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool to track compliance to regulations
Assessing and tracking all compliance audit findings
Monitoring which compliance regulations apply to the organization
Assessing and tracking all compliance audit findings is the best way to support the effectiveness of a compliance program. This allows an organization to identify areas of non-compliance, take corrective action, and monitor improvements over time12. While implementing an awareness plan, using a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool, and monitoring applicable regulations can contribute to a compliance program, they do not provide the same level of continuous improvement and effectiveness as assessing and tracking audit findings.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a tabletop exercise for an incident response plan?
It demonstrates the maturity of the incident response program.
It reduces the likelihood of an incident occurring.
It identifies deficiencies in the operating environment.
It increases confidence in the team's response readiness.
The primary benefit of a tabletop exercise for an incident response plan is to increase confidence in the team’s response readiness (D). A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response plan and team. It allows the team to practice their roles and responsibilities, review their procedures and tools, and identify and resolve any gaps or issues in their response process. A tabletop exercise can help the team to improve their skills, knowledge, and communication, and to prepare for real incidents1.
Which of the following is the BEST way to foster continuous improvement of IS audit processes and practices?
Invite external auditors and regulators to perform regular assessments of the IS audit function.
Implement rigorous managerial review and sign-off of IS audit deliverables.
Frequently review IS audit policies, procedures, and instruction manuals.
Establish and embed quality assurance (QA) within the IS audit function.
The best way to foster continuous improvement of IS audit processes and practices is to establish and embed quality assurance (QA) within the IS audit function, as this will ensure that the IS audit activities are aligned with the standards, expectations, and objectives of the organization and the stakeholders12. QA involves periodic internal and external assessments, benchmarking, feedback, and root cause analysis to identify and address gaps, issues, and opportunities for improvement34.
References
1: The Basics and Principles of Continuous Improvement4Â 2: ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on5Â 3: INSIGHTS TO QUALITY3Â 4: Continuous Auditing: Coordinating Continuous Auditing and Monitoring to Provide Continuous Assurance2
Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to an organization's ability to manage quality control (QC) processes?
Lack of segregation of duties
Lack of a dedicated QC function
Lack of policies and procedures
Lack of formal training and attestation
The greatest risk to an organization’s ability to manage QC processes is the lack of policies and procedures that define the QC objectives, standards, methods, roles, and responsibilities. Without policies and procedures, the QC processes may be inconsistent, ineffective, inefficient, or noncompliant with the relevant regulations and best practices. Policies and procedures provide the foundation and guidance for the QC processes and help to ensure their quality, reliability, and accountability.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 253
Quality Control - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
Quality Control: Meaning, Importance, Definition and Objectives
Aligning IT strategy with business strategy PRIMARILY helps an organization to:
optimize investments in IT.
create risk awareness across business units.
increase involvement of senior management in IT.
monitor the effectiveness of IT.
Aligning IT strategy with business strategy primarily helps an organization to optimize investments in IT. This is because alignment ensures that IT resources and capabilities are aligned with the business goals and priorities, and that IT delivers value to the business in terms of efficiency, effectiveness, innovation, and competitive advantage12. By aligning IT strategy with business strategy, an organization can avoid wasting money and time on IT projects or services that do not support or contribute to the business outcomes3. Alignment also helps to identify and prioritize the most critical and valuable IT initiatives that can create or optimize business value4.
Therefore, the correct answer to your question is A. optimize investments in IT.
An IS auditor is performing a follow-up audit for findings identified in an organization's user provisioning process Which of the following is the MOST appropriate population to sample from when testing for remediation?
All users provisioned after the finding was originally identified
All users provisioned after management resolved the audit issue
All users provisioned after the final audit report was issued
All users who have followed user provisioning processes provided by management
The most appropriate population to sample from when testing for remediation of findings identified in an organization’s user provisioning process is all users provisioned after the final audit report was issued. This is because the final audit report is the official document that communicates the audit findings, recommendations, and action plans to the management and other stakeholders. It also establishes a baseline for measuring the progress and effectiveness of the remediation efforts. Therefore, sampling from the users provisioned after the final audit report was issued would provide the most relevant and reliable evidence of whether the audit issues have been resolved or not.
The other options are not as appropriate as option C, as they may not reflect the actual status of the remediation efforts. All users provisioned after the finding was originally identified may include users who were provisioned before the final audit report was issued, which may not capture the full impact of the remediation actions. All users provisioned after management resolved the audit issue may not be accurate, as management’s resolution may not be verified or validated by an independent party. All users who have followed user provisioning processes provided by management may not be representative, as there may be exceptions or deviations from the processes that could affect the remediation results.
References:
An organization has engaged a third party to implement an application to perform business-critical calculations. Which of the following is the MOST important process to help ensure the application provides accurate calculations?
Key performance indicator (KPI) monitoring
Change management
Configuration management
Quality assurance (QA)
 The most important process to help ensure the application provides accurate calculations is quality assurance (QA), which involves verifying that the application meets the specified requirements and standards, and testing the application for functionality, performance, reliability, security, and usability. QA helps to identify and correct any defects or errors in the application before it is deployed to the production environment. Key performance indicator (KPI) monitoring, change management, and configuration management are important processes for managing and maintaining the application after it is implemented, but they do not directly ensure the accuracy of the calculations performed by the application. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.3: Practices for Quality Assurance
Which of the following is MOST important to determine when conducting an audit Of an organization's data privacy practices?
Whether a disciplinary process is established for data privacy violations
Whether strong encryption algorithms are deployed for personal data protection
Whether privacy technologies are implemented for personal data protection
Whether the systems inventory containing personal data is maintained
The answer D is correct because the most important thing to determine when conducting an audit of an organization’s data privacy practices is whether the systems inventory containing personal data is maintained. A systems inventory is a list of all the systems, applications, databases, and devices that store, process, or transmit personal data within the organization. Maintaining a systems inventory is essential for data privacy because it helps the organization to identify, classify, and protect the personal data it holds, as well as to comply with the relevant privacy laws and regulations. A systems inventory also enables the organization to perform data protection impact assessments (DPIAs), data breach notifications, data subject access requests, and data retention and disposal policies.
The other options are not as important as option D. Whether a disciplinary process is established for data privacy violations (option A) is a policy issue that may deter or sanction the employees who violate the data privacy rules, but it does not directly affect the data privacy practices of the organization. Whether strong encryption algorithms are deployed for personal data protection (option B) is a technical issue that may enhance the security and confidentiality of the personal data, but it does not address the other aspects of data privacy, such as accuracy, consent, and purpose limitation. Whether privacy technologies are implemented for personal data protection (option C) is also a technical issue that may support the data privacy practices of the organization, but it does not guarantee that the organization follows the best practices or complies with the applicable laws and regulations.
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Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to an IS auditor when selecting projects for inclusion in an IT audit plan?
Project charter
Project plan
Project issue log
Project business case
A project business case is a document that describes the rationale and justification for initiating a project, based on its expected costs, benefits, risks, and feasibility. A project business case provides the most useful information to an IS auditor when selecting projects for inclusion in an IT audit plan, because it helps the IS auditor to:
The other possible options are:
Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure new IT implementations align with enterprise architecture (EA) principles and requirements?
Document the security view as part of the EA
Consider stakeholder concerns when defining the EA
Perform mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations
Conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board
 The best way to help ensure new IT implementations align with enterprise architecture (EA) principles and requirements is to conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board (CAB). A CAB is a committee that evaluates and authorizes changes to IT services, such as new IT implementations. By conducting EA reviews as part of the CAB process, the organization can ensure that the proposed changes are consistent with the EA vision, goals, standards, and guidelines. This can help avoid potential conflicts, risks, or inefficiencies that may arise from misaligned IT implementations. Additionally, EA reviews can help identify opportunities for improvement, optimization, or innovation in the IT services.
The other options are not the best ways to help ensure new IT implementations align with EA principles and requirements. Documenting the security view as part of the EA is important, but it does not guarantee that new IT implementations will follow the security requirements or best practices. Considering stakeholder concerns when defining the EA is also essential, but it does not ensure that new IT implementations will meet the stakeholder expectations or needs. Performing mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations is a good practice, but it does not prevent potential issues or problems that may arise from misaligned IT implementations.
References:
An IS audit manager is reviewing workpapers for a recently completed audit of the corporate disaster recovery test. Which of the following should the IS audit manager specifically review to substantiate the conclusions?
Overviews of interviews between data center personnel and the auditor
Prior audit reports involving other corporate disaster recovery audits
Summary memos reflecting audit opinions regarding noted weaknesses
Detailed evidence of the successes and weaknesses of all contingency testing
 The IS audit manager should specifically review the detailed evidence of the successes and weaknesses of all contingency testing to substantiate the conclusions of the audit of the corporate disaster recovery test. This is because the detailed evidence can provide the audit manager with a clear and objective picture of how well the disaster recovery plan was executed, what issues or gaps were encountered, and what recommendations or actions were taken to address them. The detailed evidence can also help the audit manager to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the audit findings, as well as to evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the disaster recovery controls.
The other options are not as specific or relevant as the detailed evidence of all contingency testing. Overviews of interviews between data center personnel and the auditor may provide some useful information, but they are not sufficient to substantiate the conclusions without supporting evidence from the actual testing. Prior audit reports involving other corporate disaster recovery audits may provide some benchmarking or comparison data, but they are not directly related to the current audit scope and objectives. Summary memos reflecting audit opinions regarding noted weaknesses may provide some high-level insights, but they are not enough to substantiate the conclusions without detailed evidence to back them up.
References:
The BEST way to evaluate the effectiveness of a newly developed application is to:
perform a post-implementation review-
analyze load testing results.
perform a secure code review.
review acceptance testing results.
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a newly developed application is to review acceptance testing results. Acceptance testing is a process of verifying that the application meets the specified requirements and expectations of the users and stakeholders. Acceptance testing results can provide evidence of the functionality, usability, reliability, performance, security and quality of the application. Performing a post-implementation review, analyzing load testing results, and performing a secure code review are also important activities for evaluating an application, but they are not as comprehensive or conclusive as acceptance testing results.
References: Info Technology & Systems Resources | COBIT, Risk, Governance … - ISACA, IT Governance and Process Maturity
Which of the following is the PRIMARY basis on which audit objectives are established?
Audit risk
Consideration of risks
Assessment of prior audits
Business strategy
The primary basis on which audit objectives are established is the consideration of risks12. This involves identifying and assessing the risks that could prevent the organization from achieving its objectives12. The audit objectives are then designed to address these risks and provide assurance that the organization’s controls are effective in managing them12. While audit risk, assessment of prior audits, and business strategy are important factors in the audit process, they are secondary to the fundamental requirement of considering risks12.
References:
Which type of device sits on the perimeter of a corporate of home network, where it obtains a public IP address and then generates private IP addresses internally?
Switch
Intrusion prevention system (IPS)
Gateway
Router
A router is a type of device that sits on the perimeter of a corporate or home network, where it obtains a public IP address and then generates private IP addresses internally. A router connects two or more networks and forwards packets between them based on routing rules. A router can also provide network address translation (NAT) functionality, which allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address and access the internet. A switch is a type of device that connects multiple devices within a network and forwards packets based on MAC addresses. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a type of device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules. A gateway is a type of device that acts as an interface between different networks or protocols, such as a modem or a firewall. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Glossary of Terms]
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate testing approach when auditing a daily data flow between two systems via an automated interface to confirm that it is complete and accurate?
Confirm that the encryption standard applied to the interface is in line with best practice.
Inspect interface configurations and an example output of the systems.
Perform data reconciliation between the two systems for a sample of 25 days.
Conduct code review for both systems and inspect design documentation.
The most appropriate testing approach when auditing a daily data flow between two systems via an automated interface is to perform data reconciliation between the two systems for a sample of 25 days. Data reconciliation is a process of verifying that the data transferred from one system to another is complete and accurate, and that there are no discrepancies or errors in the data flow1. Data reconciliation can be performed by using generalized audit software, which is a type of computer-assisted audit technique (CAAT) that allows the IS auditor to perform various audit tasks on the data stored in different file formats and databases2. By performing data reconciliation for a sample of 25 days, the IS auditor can test the reliability and consistency of the data flow over a reasonable period of time, and identify any potential issues or anomalies that could affect the quality of the data or the functionality of the systems.
References
1: Data Flow Testing - GeeksforGeeks 2: Generalized Audit Software (GAS) - ISACA
During the walk-through procedures for an upcoming audit, an IS auditor notes that the key application in scope is part of a Software as a Service (SaaS)
agreement. What should the auditor do NEXT?
Verify whether IT management monitors the effectiveness of the environment.
Verify whether a right-to-audit clause exists.
Verify whether a third-party security attestation exists.
Verify whether service level agreements (SLAs) are defined and monitored.
The auditor should verify whether a right-to-audit clause exists (B) next, because it is a contractual provision that grants the auditor the right to access and examine the records, systems, and processes of the SaaS provider. A right-to-audit clause is important for ensuring transparency, accountability, and compliance of the SaaS provider with the customer’s requirements and expectations. A right-to-audit clause can also help the auditor to identify and mitigate any risks or issues related to the SaaS agreement12.
Verifying whether IT management monitors the effectiveness of the environment (A) is not the next step, because it is a part of the ongoing monitoring and evaluation process, not the initial walk-through procedures. The auditor should first establish the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit before assessing the performance and controls of the SaaS provider.
Verifying whether a third-party security attestation exists © is not the next step, because it is not a mandatory requirement for a SaaS agreement. A third-party security attestation is a report or certificate issued by an independent auditor that evaluates and validates the security controls and practices of the SaaS provider. A third-party security attestation can provide assurance and confidence to the customer, but it does not replace or eliminate the need for a right-to-audit clause3.
Verifying whether service level agreements (SLAs) are defined and monitored (D) is not the next step, because it is not directly related to the audit process. SLAs are contractual agreements that specify the quality, availability, and performance standards of the SaaS provider. SLAs are important for measuring and managing the service delivery and customer satisfaction, but they do not grant or guarantee the right to audit4.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization's method to transport sensitive data between offices?
The method relies exclusively on the use of public key infrastructure (PKI).
The method relies exclusively on the use of digital signatures.
The method relies exclusively on the use of asymmetric encryption algorithms.
The method relies exclusively on the use of 128-bit encryption.
 The greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s method to transport sensitive data between offices is that the method relies exclusively on the use of asymmetric encryption algorithms. Asymmetric encryption algorithms, also known as public key encryption, use two different keys for encryption and decryption: a public key that is shared with anyone who wants to communicate with the sender, and a private key that is kept secret by the sender. Asymmetric encryption algorithms are more secure than symmetric encryption algorithms, which use the same key for both encryption and decryption, but they are also slower and more computationally intensive. Therefore, relying exclusively on asymmetric encryption algorithms may not be efficient or practical for transporting large amounts of sensitive data between offices. A better method would be to use a combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms, such as using asymmetric encryption to exchange a symmetric key and then using symmetric encryption to encrypt and decrypt the data.
The other options are not as concerning as option C. The method relying exclusively on the use of public key infrastructure (PKI) is not a concern, because PKI is a system that provides the services and mechanisms for creating, managing, distributing, using, storing, and revoking digital certificates that are based on asymmetric encryption algorithms. PKI enables secure and authenticated communication between parties who do not have a prior trust relationship. The method relying exclusively on the use of digital signatures is not a concern, because digital signatures are a way of verifying the authenticity and integrity of a message or document by using asymmetric encryption algorithms. Digital signatures ensure that the sender cannot deny sending the message or document, and that the receiver can detect any tampering or alteration of the message or document. The method relying exclusively on the use of 128-bit encryption is not a concern, because 128-bit encryption is a level of encryption that uses a 128-bit key to encrypt and decrypt data. 128-bit encryption is considered to be strong enough to resist brute-force attacks by modern computers. References: Asymmetric vs Symmetric Encryption: What are differences?, Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), Digital Signature, What is 128-bit Encryption?
Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of an IT steering committee?
Prioritizing IT projects in accordance with business requirements
Reviewing periodic IT risk assessments
Validating and monitoring the skill sets of IT department staff
Establishing IT budgets for the business
 A primary responsibility of an IT steering committee is prioritizing IT projects in accordance with business requirements, as this ensures that IT resources are allocated to support the strategic objectives and needs of the organization. Reviewing periodic IT risk assessments, validating and monitoring the skill sets of IT department staff, and establishing IT budgets for the business are important activities, but they are not the primary responsibility of an IT steering committee. They may be delegated to other IT governance bodies or functions within the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: IT Governance
Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement a data retention policy?
To establish a recovery point objective (RPO) for disaster recovery procedures
To limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information
To document business objectives for processing data within the organization
To assign responsibility and ownership for data protection outside IT
The best reason to implement a data retention policy is to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information. A data retention policy is a business’ established protocol for maintaining information, typically defining what data needs to be retained, the format in which it should be kept, how long it should be stored for, whether it should eventually be archived or deleted, who has the authority to dispose of it, and what procedure to follow in the event of a policy violation1. A data retention policy can help an organization to:
Therefore, by implementing a data retention policy, an organization can limit its liability associated with storing and protecting information, as well as improve its data governance and management practices.
References:
Which of the following be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing on-site preventive maintenance for an organization’s business-critical server hardware?
Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget.
Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system
Preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters.
 The answer C is correct because preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) would be of greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing on-site preventive maintenance for an organization’s business-critical server hardware. This is because outsourcing preventive maintenance to multiple vendors without NDAs exposes the organization to the risk of unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of sensitive data and information stored on the servers. NDAs are legal contracts that bind the vendors to protect the confidentiality and security of the data and information they access or handle during the preventive maintenance. Without NDAs, the vendors may not have any obligation or incentive to safeguard the data and information, and they may misuse, leak, or compromise them for malicious or commercial purposes. This could result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, or regulatory penalties for the organization.
The other options are not as concerning as option C. Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget (option A) is a financial issue that may affect the profitability or efficiency of the organization, but it does not directly impact the security or availability of the server hardware. Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system (option B) is a procedural issue that may indicate a lack of coordination or communication between the IT department and the business units, but it does not necessarily affect the quality or effectiveness of the preventive maintenance. The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters (option D) is a technical issue that may influence the frequency or timing of the preventive maintenance, but it does not imply any risk or deficiency in the preventive maintenance itself.
References:
When planning an audit, it is acceptable for an IS auditor to rely on a third-party provider’s external audit report on service level management when the
scope and methodology meet audit requirements
service provider is independently certified and accredited
report confirms that service levels were not violated
report was released within the last 12 months
 It is acceptable for an IS auditor to rely on a third-party provider’s external audit report on service level management when the scope and methodology meet audit requirements. This means that the external audit report covers the same objectives, criteria, standards and procedures that the IS auditor would use to assess the service level management. This way, the IS auditor can avoid duplication of work and reduce audit costs and efforts. The service provider’s certification and accreditation, the report’s confirmation of service levels and the report’s release date are not sufficient to justify reliance on the external audit report. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.
With regard to resilience, which of the following is the GREATEST risk to an organization that has implemented a new critical system?
A business impact analysis (BIA) has not been performed
Business data is not sanitized in the development environment
There is no plan for monitoring system downtime
The process owner has not signed off on user acceptance testing (UAT)
 Resilience is the ability of an organization to continue to operate effectively during or after a disruptive event. A business impact analysis (BIA) is a key process to identify the critical systems and processes that support the organization’s objectives and determine the impact of their disruption. Without a BIA, the organization may not be able to prioritize the recovery of the most important systems and processes, which poses the greatest risk to its resilience. The other options are not as significant as a BIA, as they relate to data quality, system monitoring, and user acceptance testing, which are important but not essential for resilience. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2 Business Continuity Planning1
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate indicator of change management effectiveness?
Time lag between changes to the configuration and the update of records
Number of system software changes
Time lag between changes and updates of documentation materials
Number of incidents resulting from changes
Change management is the process of planning, implementing, monitoring, and evaluating changes to an organization’s information systems and related components. Change management aims to ensure that changes are aligned with the business objectives, minimize risks and disruptions, and maximize benefits and value.
One of the key aspects of change management is measuring its effectiveness, which means assessing whether the changes have achieved the desired outcomes and met the expectations of the stakeholders. There are various indicators that can be used to measure change management effectiveness, such as time, cost, quality, scope, satisfaction, and performance.
Among the four options given, the most appropriate indicator of change management effectiveness is the number of incidents resulting from changes. An incident is an unplanned event or interruption that affects the normal operation or service delivery of an information system. Incidents can be caused by various factors, such as errors, defects, failures, malfunctions, or malicious attacks. Incidents can have negative impacts on the organization, such as loss of data, productivity, reputation, or revenue.
The number of incidents resulting from changes is a direct measure of how well the changes have been planned, implemented, monitored, and evaluated. A high number of incidents indicates that the changes have not been properly tested, verified, communicated, or controlled. A low number of incidents indicates that the changes have been executed smoothly and successfully. Therefore, the number of incidents resulting from changes reflects the quality and effectiveness of the change management process.
The other three options are not as appropriate indicators of change management effectiveness as the number of incidents resulting from changes. The time lag between changes to the configuration and the update of records is a measure of how timely and accurate the configuration management process is. Configuration management is a subset of change management that focuses on identifying, documenting, and controlling the configuration items (CIs) that make up an information system. The time lag between changes and updates of documentation materials is a measure of how well the documentation process is aligned with the change management process. Documentation is an important aspect of change management that provides information and guidance to the stakeholders involved in or affected by the changes. The number of system software changes is a measure of how frequently and extensively the system software is modified or updated. System software changes are a type of change that affects the operating system, middleware, or utilities that support an information system.
While these three indicators are relevant and useful for measuring certain aspects of change management, they do not directly measure the outcomes or impacts of the changes on the organization. They are more related to the inputs or activities of change management than to its outputs or results. Therefore, they are not as appropriate indicators of change management effectiveness as the number of incidents resulting from changes.
References:
An IS auditor is assigned to review the IS department s quality procedures. Upon contacting the IS manager, the auditor finds that there is an informal unwritten set of standards Which of the following should be the auditor's NEXT action1?
Make recommendations to IS management as to appropriate quality standards
Postpone the audit until IS management implements written standards
Document and lest compliance with the informal standards
Finalize the audit and report the finding
The auditor’s next action after finding that there is an informal unwritten set of standards in the IS department is to document and test compliance with the informal standards. This is because the auditor’s role is to evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the existing controls, regardless of whether they are formal or informal, written or unwritten. The auditor should also assess the risks and implications of having informal standards, such as lack of consistency, accountability, or traceability. The auditor should not make recommendations, postpone the audit, or finalize the audit without performing the audit procedures. References:
When evaluating information security governance within an organization, which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor?
The information security department has difficulty filling vacancies
An information security governance audit was not conducted within the past year
The data center manager has final sign-off on security projects
Information security policies are updated annually
The finding that should be of most concern to an IS auditor when evaluating information security governance within an organization is that the data center manager has final sign-off on security projects. This indicates a lack of segregation of duties and a potential conflict of interest between the operational and security roles. The data center manager may have access to sensitive information or systems that should be protected by security controls, or may influence or override security decisions that are not in the best interest of the organization. This finding also suggests that there is no clear accountability or authority for information security governance at a higher level, such as senior management or board of directors. The other findings are not as concerning as this one, although they may indicate some areas for improvement or monitoring. References:
After delivering an audit report, the audit manager discovers that evidence was overlooked during the audit This evidence indicates that a procedural control may have failed and could contradict a conclusion of the audit Which of the following risks is MOST affected by this oversight?
Inherent
Operational
Audit
Financial
The risk that is most affected by this oversight is audit risk. Audit risk is the risk that the auditor may express an inappropriate opinion or conclusion based on the audit evidence obtained. Audit risk consists of inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. Inherent risk is the risk that material errors or frauds exist in the audited area before considering the effectiveness of internal controls. Control risk is the risk that the internal controls fail to prevent or detect material errors or frauds. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor fails to identify material errors or frauds using the audit procedures performed. In this case, the auditor has overlooked evidence that could contradict a conclusion of the audit, which increases the detection risk and consequently the audit risk. References:
What should an IS auditor do FIRST when a follow-up audit reveals some management action plans have not been initiated?
Confirm whether the identified risks are still valid.
Provide a report to the audit committee.
Escalate the lack of plan completion to executive management.
Request an additional action plan review to confirm the findings.
The first thing that an IS auditor should do when a follow-up audit reveals some management action plans have not been initiated is to escalate the lack of plan completion to executive management. This is because the failure to implement the agreed management action plans may indicate that the management is not taking the audit findings and recommendations seriously, or that they are accepting too much risk by not addressing the identified issues. Escalating the lack of plan completion to executive management can help to raise awareness and accountability, as well as to seek support and intervention to ensure that the management action plans are executed in a timely and effective manner12.
Confirming whether the identified risks are still valid is not the first thing to do, although it may be a useful step to reassess the current situation and the potential impact of not implementing the management action plans. However, confirming the validity of the risks does not address the root cause of why the management action plans have not been initiated, nor does it provide any assurance or remediation for the unresolved issues34.
Providing a report to the audit committee is not the first thing to do, although it may be a necessary step to communicate and document the results of the follow-up audit. However, providing a report to the audit committee does not guarantee that the management action plans will be initiated, nor does it resolve any conflicts or challenges that may prevent the management from implementing them34.
Requesting an additional action plan review to confirm the findings is not the first thing to do, although it may be a prudent step to verify and validate the accuracy and completeness of the follow-up audit. However, requesting an additional review may delay or defer the implementation of the management action plans, as well as consume more internal audit resources and time
Which of the following provides the BE ST method for maintaining the security of corporate applications pushed to employee-owned mobile devices?
Enabling remote data destruction capabilities
Implementing mobile device management (MDM)
Disabling unnecessary network connectivity options
Requiring security awareness training for mobile users
The best method for maintaining the security of corporate applications pushed to employee-owned mobile devices is implementing mobile device management (MDM). MDM is a software solution that allows an organization to remotely manage, configure, and secure the mobile devices that access its network and data. MDM can help protect corporate applications on employee-owned devices by:
MDM can provide a comprehensive and centralized approach to maintain the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, regardless of the device type, platform, or ownership. MDM can also help the organization comply with regulatory and industry standards for data protection and privacy.
Enabling remote data destruction capabilities is a useful feature for maintaining the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, but it is not the best method by itself. Remote data destruction allows the organization to erase the corporate data and applications from the device in case of loss, theft, or compromise. However, this feature does not prevent unauthorized access or misuse of the corporate data and applications before they are destroyed. Remote data destruction is usually part of an MDM solution.
Disabling unnecessary network connectivity options is a good practice for maintaining the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, but it is not the best method by itself. Network connectivity options, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, NFC, or USB, can expose the device to potential attacks or data leakage. Disabling these options when they are not needed can reduce the attack surface and improve battery life. However, this practice does not address other security risks or requirements for the corporate applications on the device. Disabling network connectivity options can also be part of an MDM solution.
Requiring security awareness training for mobile users is an important measure for maintaining the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, but it is not the best method by itself. Security awareness training can educate the users about the potential threats and best practices for using their devices securely. It can also help foster a culture of security and responsibility among the users. However, security awareness training cannot guarantee that the users will follow the security policies and guidelines consistently and correctly. Security awareness training should be complemented by technical controls, such as MDM.
References:
An IS auditor is asked to review an organization's technology relationships, interfaces, and data. Which of the following enterprise architecture (EA) areas is MOST appropriate this review? (Choose Correct answer and give explanation from CISA Certification - Information Systems Auditor official book)
Reference architecture
Infrastructure architecture
Information security architecture
Application architecture
The lack of system documentation should be of most concern to an IS auditor reviewing the information systems acquisition, development, and implementation process. This is because system documentation is a vital source of information that describes the system’s purpose, functionality, design, architecture, testing, deployment, operation, and maintenance. System documentation helps the IS auditor to understand and evaluate the system’s quality, performance, security, compliance, and alignment with the business requirements and objectives. Without system documentation, the IS auditor may not be able to perform a thorough and effective audit of the system, as well as identify any issues or risks that may affect the system’s reliability or integrity12.
Data owners are not trained on the use of data conversion tools is not the most concerning issue, although it may indicate a lack of user readiness or competence for the system implementation. Data conversion tools are software applications that help users to transform data from one format or structure to another, such as from legacy systems to new systems. Data owners are users who have the responsibility and authority to manage and control the data within their domain. Data owners should be trained on how to use data conversion tools to ensure that the data is accurately and securely transferred to the new system, as well as to avoid any data loss, corruption, or inconsistency. However, data owners are not the only users who need training for the system implementation, and data conversion tools are not the only tools that need training34.
A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise was not conducted is not the most concerning issue, although it may indicate a lack of continuous improvement or learning culture for the system development and implementation process. A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise is a meeting or a session that takes place after the completion of a system implementation project, where the project team and stakeholders discuss and document the successes and failures of the project, as well as identify any best practices or areas for improvement for future projects. A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise can help to enhance the project management skills, knowledge, and performance of the project team and stakeholders, as well as to avoid repeating the same mistakes or problems in future projects56.
System deployment is routinely performed by contractors is not the most concerning issue, although it may pose some challenges or risks for the system implementation process. System deployment is the final stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC), where the system is installed and configured on the target environment and made available for use by end-users. System deployment can be performed by internal staff or external contractors, depending on the availability, expertise, and cost of resources. System deployment by contractors may offer some benefits such as faster delivery, lower cost, or higher quality than internal staff. However, system deployment by contractors may also introduce some risks such as loss of control, dependency, or security breaches over the system implementation process
An IS auditor finds a segregation of duties issue in an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the misconfiguration from recurring?
Monitoring access rights on a regular basis
Referencing a standard user-access matrix
Granting user access using a role-based model
Correcting the segregation of duties conflicts
The best way to prevent the misconfiguration from recurring is to grant user access using a role-based model. A role-based access control (RBAC) model is an access control method that assigns permissions to end-users based on their role within the organization1. RBAC provides fine-grained control, offering a simple, manageable approach to access management that is less error-prone than individually assigning permissions1. RBAC also enforces the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have the minimum access required to perform their tasks2.
A role-based model can help prevent segregation of duties (SoD) issues in an ERP system by restricting user access to conflicting activities within the application. SoD is a central issue for enterprises to ensure compliance with laws and regulations, and to reduce the risk of fraud and unauthorized transactions3. SoD requires that no single individual or group of individuals should have control over two or more parts of a process or an asset3. For example, a user who can create and approve purchase orders should not be able to process payments or modify vendor records.
By using a role-based model, user access provisioning is based on the needs of a group (e.g., accounting department) based on common responsibilities and needs1. This means each role has a given set of permissions, and individuals can be assigned to one or more roles. For example, you may designate a user as an accounts payable clerk, an accounts receivable clerk, or a financial manager, and limit access to specific resources or tasks. The user-role and role-permissions relationships make it easy to perform role assignment because individual users no longer have unique access rights, rather they have privileges that conform to the permissions assigned to their specific role or job function1.
The other options are not the best way to prevent the misconfiguration from recurring. Monitoring access rights on a regular basis (option A) is a detective control that can help identify SoD issues after they occur, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Referencing a standard user-access matrix (option B) is a tool that can help document and analyze user access rights, but it does not ensure that the user access rights are configured correctly or consistently. Correcting the segregation of duties conflicts (option D) is a corrective action that can resolve SoD issues once they are detected, but it does not prevent them from happening again.
References: 3: Implementing Segregation of Duties: A Practical Experience Based on Best Practices 1: What is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)? Examples, Benefits, and More 2: What is Azure role-based access control (Azure RBAC)?
An organization's IT department and internal IS audit function all report to the chief information officer (CIO). Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with this reporting structure?
Potential for inaccurate audit findings
Compromise of IS audit independence
IS audit resources being shared with other IT functions
IS audit being isolated from other audit functions
The greatest concern with the IT department and internal IS audit function both reporting to the CIO is the potential compromise of IS audit independence. Auditor independence refers to the impartiality and objectivity of an auditor in conducting an audit, free from conflicts of interest and bias1. It is crucial for ensuring the quality and reliability of financial reporting1. If the IS audit function reports to the CIO, who also oversees the IT department, it could create a conflict of interest that might compromise the impartiality and objectivity of the IS audit function.
References:
An IS auditor conducts a review of a third-party vendor's reporting of key performance indicators (KPIs) Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the auditor?
KPI data is not being analyzed
KPIs are not clearly defined
Some KPIs are not documented
KPIs have never been updated
KPIs are not clearly defined is the most concerning finding for an IS auditor, because it implies that the third-party vendor does not have a clear understanding of what constitutes success or failure in their performance. This can lead to inaccurate or misleading reporting, poor decision making, and lack of accountability. KPIs should be SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) and aligned with the business objectives and expectations of the stakeholders12. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 3
What is the PRIMARY benefit of using one-time passwords?
An intercepted password cannot be reused
Security for applications can be automated
Users do not have to memorize complex passwords
Users cannot be locked out of an account
The primary benefit of using one-time passwords is that an intercepted password cannot be reused, as it is valid only for a single login session or transaction. One-time passwords enhance the security of authentication by preventing replay attacks or password guessing. The other options are not the primary benefits of using one-time passwords. Security for applications can be automated with or without one-time passwords. Users may still have to memorize complex passwords or use a device or software to generate one-time passwords. Users can still be locked out of an account if they enter an incorrect or expired one-time password. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.1
Which of the following helps to ensure the integrity of data for a system interface?
System interface testing
user acceptance testing (IJAT)
Validation checks
Audit logs
Validation checks are a type of data quality control that helps to ensure the integrity of data for a system interface. Validation checks verify that the data entered or transferred between systems is correct, consistent, and conforms to predefined rules or standards. Validation checks can prevent or detect errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies in the data that may affect the system’s functionality, performance, or security.
Option C is correct because validation checks are a common and effective method of ensuring data integrity for a system interface. Validation checks can be performed at various stages of the data lifecycle, such as input, processing, output, or storage. Validation checks can also be applied to different types of data, such as data types, codes, ranges, formats, consistency, and uniqueness.
Option A is incorrect because system interface testing is a type of software testing that verifies the interaction between two separate systems or components of a system. System interface testing does not directly ensure the integrity of data for a system interface, but rather the functionality and reliability of the interface itself. System interface testing may use validation checks as part of its test cases, but it is not the same as validation checks.
Option B is incorrect because user acceptance testing (UAT) is a type of software testing that evaluates whether the system meets the user’s expectations and requirements. UAT does not directly ensure the integrity of data for a system interface, but rather the usability and acceptability of the system from the user’s perspective. UAT may use validation checks as part of its test scenarios, but it is not the same as validation checks.
Option D is incorrect because audit logs are records of events and activities that occur within a system or network. Audit logs do not directly ensure the integrity of data for a system interface, but rather provide evidence and accountability for the system’s operations and security. Audit logs may use validation checks as part of their analysis or reporting, but they are not the same as validation checks.
References:
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing an organization's security controls for policy compliance?
Security policies are not applicable across all business units
End users are not required to acknowledge security policy training
The security policy has not been reviewed within the past year
Security policy documents are available on a public domain website
 The auditor should be most concerned about the security policy documents being available on a public domain website. This is because this exposes the organization’s security posture and strategy to potential attackers, who can exploit the information to launch targeted attacks or bypass the security controls. The security policy documents should be classified as confidential and protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The other options are less severe than exposing the security policy documents to the public, although they may also indicate some gaps or weaknesses in the security policy development, implementation, or maintenance process. References:
When physical destruction IS not practical, which of the following is the MOST effective means of disposing of sensitive data on a hard disk?
Overwriting multiple times
Encrypting the disk
Reformatting
Deleting files sequentially
The correct answer is A. Overwriting multiple times. Overwriting is a method of securely erasing data from a hard disk by replacing the existing data with random or meaningless data, making it difficult or impossible to recover the original data1. Overwriting multiple times, also known as multiple-pass overwriting, is a more effective way of disposing of sensitive data than overwriting once, as it reduces the possibility of residual traces of data that could be recovered by advanced techniques2. Overwriting multiple times can be done by using specialized software tools that follow certain standards or algorithms, such as the US Department of Defense’s DoD 5220.22-M or the Gutmann method3.
Which of the following would the IS auditor MOST likely review to determine whether modifications to the operating system parameters were authorized?
Documentation of exit routines
System initialization logs
Change control log
Security system parameters
Operating system parameters are settings or values that affect the behavior or performance of the operating system1. Modifications to the operating system parameters may be necessary to improve the system functionality, security, or efficiency. However, such modifications may also introduce risks or errors that can affect the system stability, compatibility, or integrity. Therefore, modifications to the operating system parameters should be authorized and documented by the appropriate authority2.
A change control log is a record of all changes made to the system, including the date, time, description, reason, authorization, and impact of each change3. A change control log can help the IS auditor to verify whether modifications to the operating system parameters were authorized by comparing the log entries with the actual system settings and the change approval documents4.
Which of the following is an example of a preventive control for physical access?
Keeping log entries for all visitors to the building
Implementing a fingerprint-based access control system for the building
Installing closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras for all ingress and egress points
Implementing a centralized logging server to record instances of staff logging into workstations
 A preventive control is a control that aims to deter or prevent undesirable events from occurring. A fingerprint-based access control system for the building is an example of a preventive control for physical access, as it restricts unauthorized persons from entering the premises. Keeping log entries for all visitors to the building, installing CCTV cameras for all ingress and egress points, and implementing a centralized logging server to record instances of staff logging into workstations are examples of detective controls, which are controls that aim to discover or detect undesirable events that have already occurred.
References:Â IS Audit and Assurance Tools and Techniques, CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA
The use of control totals satisfies which of the following control objectives?
Transaction integrity
Processing integrity
Distribution control
System recoverability
 The use of control totals satisfies the control objective of processing integrity. Processing integrity refers to the accuracy, completeness, timeliness, and validity of data processing. Control totals are a method of verifying the correctness of data processing by comparing the total value or count of a batch of transactions before and after processing. For example, if a batch of 100 invoices is entered into an accounting system, the total amount and number of invoices should match before and after processing. If there is a discrepancy, it indicates an error in data entry, transmission, or processing. Control totals help to ensure that no transactions are lost, duplicated, or altered during processing.
References:
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization's method to transport sensitive data between offices?
The method relies exclusively on the use of asymmetric encryption algorithms.
The method relies exclusively on the use of 128-bit encryption.
The method relies exclusively on the use of digital signatures.
The method relies exclusively on the use of public key infrastructure (PKI).
The greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s method to transport sensitive data between offices is that the method relies exclusively on the use of public key infrastructure (PKI). PKI is a set of tools and procedures that are used to create, manage, and revoke digital certificates and public keys for encryption and authentication1. PKI can provide secure and trustworthy communication over the internet, but it also has some limitations and risks that need to be considered.
One of the main limitations of PKI is that it depends on the trustworthiness and security of the certificate authority (CA), which is the entity that issues and verifies the digital certificates2. If the CA is compromised or malicious, it can issue fake or fraudulent certificates that can be used to impersonate legitimate parties or intercept sensitive data. For example, in 2011, a hacker breached the CA DigiNotar and issued hundreds of rogue certificates for domains such as Google, Yahoo, and Microsoft3. This allowed the hacker to conduct man-in-the-middle attacks and spy on the online activities of users in Iran3.
Another limitation of PKI is that it requires a complex and costly infrastructure to maintain and operate. PKI involves multiple components, such as servers, software, hardware, policies, and procedures, that need to be configured, updated, and monitored regularly1. PKI also requires a high level of technical expertise and coordination among different parties, such as users, administrators, CAs, and registration authorities (RAs)1. PKI can be vulnerable to human errors or negligence that can compromise its security or functionality. For example, in 2018, a software bug in Apple’s macOS High Sierra caused the system to accept any certificate as valid without checking its validity period. This could have allowed attackers to use expired or revoked certificates to bypass security checks.
Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if an organization relies exclusively on PKI for transporting sensitive data between offices. PKI can provide a high level of security and trust, but it also has some inherent risks and challenges that need to be addressed. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the organization has implemented adequate controls and measures to ensure the reliability and integrity of its PKI system. An IS auditor should also consider whether the organization has alternative or complementary methods for securing its data transmission, such as using symmetric encryption algorithms or digital signatures. Symmetric encryption algorithms use the same key for both encryption and decryption, which can offer faster performance and lower overhead than asymmetric encryption algorithms used by PKI4. Digital signatures use cryptographic techniques to verify the identity and authenticity of the sender and the integrity of the data5.
A database administrator (DBA) should be prevented from having end user responsibilities:
having end user responsibilities
accessing sensitive information
having access to production files
using an emergency user ID
 A database administrator (DBA) should be prevented from having end user responsibilities to avoid a conflict of interest and a violation of the principle of segregation of duties. End user responsibilities may include initiating transactions, authorizing transactions, recording transactions or reconciling transactions. A DBA who has end user responsibilities may compromise the integrity, confidentiality and availability of the data and the database systems. Accessing sensitive information, having access to production files and using an emergency user ID are not end user responsibilities, but rather potential risks or controls associated with the DBA role. References:
Which of the following responsibilities of an organization's quality assurance (QA) function should raise concern for an IS auditor?
Ensuring standards are adhered to within the development process
Ensuring the test work supports observations
Updating development methodology
Implementing solutions to correct defects
 Implementing solutions to correct defects is a responsibility of the development function, not the quality assurance (QA) function. The QA function should ensure that the development process follows the established standards and methodologies, and that the defects are identified and reported. The QA function should not be involved in fixing the defects, as this would compromise its independence and objectivity. The other options are valid responsibilities of the QA function, and they should not raise concern for an IS auditor. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 300.
An IS auditor discovers that validation controls m a web application have been moved from the server side into the browser to boost performance This would MOST likely increase the risk of a successful attack by.
phishing.
denial of service (DoS)
structured query language (SQL) injection
buffer overflow
Moving validation controls from the server side into the browser would most likely increase the risk of a successful attack by structured query language (SQL) injection. SQL injection is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s database layer by inserting malicious SQL statements into user input fields. Validation controls are used to check and filter user input before sending it to the database. If these controls are moved to the browser, they can be easily bypassed or modified by an attacker, who can then execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 361
What is MOST important to verify during an external assessment of network vulnerability?
Update of security information event management (SIEM) rules
Regular review of the network security policy
Completeness of network asset inventory
Location of intrusion detection systems (IDS)
 An external assessment of network vulnerability is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and risks that affect the security and availability of a network from an outsider’s perspective. The most important factor to verify during this process is the completeness of network asset inventory, which is a list of all the devices, systems, and software that are connected to or part of the network. A complete and accurate network asset inventory can help identify the scope and boundaries of the network, the potential attack vectors and entry points, the critical assets and dependencies, and the existing security controls and gaps. Without a complete network asset inventory, an external assessment of network vulnerability may miss some important assets or vulnerabilities, leading to inaccurate or incomplete results and recommendations.
References:
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices?
Implement network access control.
Implement outbound firewall rules.
Perform network reviews.
Review access control lists.
The most effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices is to implement network access control. Network access control is a security control that regulates and restricts access to network resources based on predefined policies and criteria, such as device type, identity, location, or security posture. Network access control can help maintain network integrity when using mobile devices by preventing unauthorized or compromised devices from accessing or affecting network systems or data. The other options are not as effective as network access control in maintaining network integrity when using mobile devices, as they do not address all aspects of network access or security. Implementing outbound firewall rules is a security control that filters and blocks network traffic based on source, destination, protocol, or port, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. Performing network reviews is a monitoring activity that evaluates and reports on the performance, availability, or security of network resources, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. Reviewing access control lists is a verification activity that validates and confirms the access rights and privileges of network users or devices, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2
Which of the following components of a risk assessment is MOST helpful to management in determining the level of risk mitigation to apply?
Risk identification
Risk classification
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Impact assessment
Which of the following is the MOST effective control for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data stored unencrypted on virtual machines?
Monitor access to stored images and snapshots of virtual machines.
Restrict access to images and snapshots of virtual machines.
Limit creation of virtual machine images and snapshots.
Review logical access controls on virtual machines regularly.
The most effective control for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data stored unencrypted on virtual machines is to monitor access to stored images and snapshots of virtual machines. Images and snapshots are copies of virtual machines that can be used for backup, restoration, or cloning purposes. If data stored on virtual machines are unencrypted, they may be exposed or compromised if unauthorized or malicious users access or copy the images or snapshots. Therefore, monitoring access to stored images and snapshots can help detect and prevent any unauthorized or suspicious activities, and provide audit trails for accountability and investigation.
Restricting access to images and snapshots of virtual machines, limiting creation of virtual machine images and snapshots, and reviewing logical access controls on virtual machines regularly are not the most effective controls for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data stored unencrypted on virtual machines. These controls may help reduce the risk or impact of data exposure or compromise, but they do not provide sufficient visibility or assurance of data protection. Restricting access to images and snapshots may not prevent authorized users from abusing their privileges or credentials. Limiting creation of virtual machine images and snapshots may not address the existing copies that may contain sensitive data. Reviewing logical access controls on virtual machines regularly may not reflect the actual access activities on images and snapshots.
Which of the following is the BEST compensating control when segregation of duties is lacking in a small IS department?
Background checks
User awareness training
Transaction log review
Mandatory holidays
 The best compensating control when segregation of duties is lacking in a small IS department is transaction log review. Transaction log review can help detect any unauthorized or fraudulent activities performed by IS staff who have access to multiple functions or systems. Transaction log review can also provide an audit trail for accountability and investigation purposes. The other options are not as effective as transaction log review in compensating for the lack of segregation of duties. Background checks are preventive controls that can help screen potential employees for any criminal records or dishonest behavior, but they do not prevent existing employees from abusing their access privileges. User awareness training is a detective control that can help educate users on how to report any suspicious or abnormal activities in the IS environment, but it does not monitor or verify the actions of IS staff. Mandatory holidays are deterrent controls that can discourage IS staff from engaging in fraudulent activities by requiring them to take periodic leave, but they do not prevent or detect such activities when they occur. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
While executing follow-up activities, an IS auditor is concerned that management has implemented corrective actions that are different from those originally discussed and agreed with the audit function. In order to resolve the situation, the IS auditor's BEST course of action would be to:
re-prioritize the original issue as high risk and escalate to senior management.
schedule a follow-up audit in the next audit cycle.
postpone follow-up activities and escalate the alternative controls to senior audit management.
determine whether the alternative controls sufficiently mitigate the risk.
 The IS auditor’s best course of action in this situation is to determine whether the alternative controls sufficiently mitigate the risk. Alternative controls are different from those originally discussed and agreed with the audit function, but they may still achieve the same objective of addressing the audit issue or reducing the risk to an acceptable level. The IS auditor should evaluate whether the alternative controls are appropriate, effective, and sustainable before closing the audit finding or escalating it to senior management. The other options are not appropriate for resolving this situation, as they do not consider whether the alternative controls are adequate or reasonable. Re-prioritizing the original issue as high risk and escalating to senior management is a drastic step that may undermine the relationship between the auditor and management, and it should be done only after exhausting other means of resolving the issue. Scheduling a follow-up audit in the next audit cycle is unnecessary, as follow-up activities should be performed as soon as possible after management has implemented corrective actions. Postponing follow-up activities and escalating the alternative controls to senior audit management is premature, as follow-up activities should be completed before reporting any findings or recommendations to senior audit management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable audit evidence on the validity of transactions in a financial application?
Walk-through reviews
Substantive testing
Compliance testing
Design documentation reviews
 Substantive testing provides the most reliable audit evidence on the validity of transactions in a financial application. Substantive testing is an audit procedure that examines the financial statements and supporting documentation to see if they contain errors or misstatements. Substantive testing can help to verify that the transactions recorded in the financial application are authorized, complete, accurate, and properly classified. Substantive testing can include methods such as vouching, confirmation, analytical procedures, or physical examination.Â
In a 24/7 processing environment, a database contains several privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire. Which of the following recommendations would BEST address the risk with minimal disruption to the business?
Modify applications to no longer require direct access to the database.
Introduce database access monitoring into the environment
Modify the access management policy to make allowances for application accounts.
Schedule downtime to implement password changes.
The best recommendation to address the risk of privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire in a 24/7 processing environment is to introduce database access monitoring into the environment. Database access monitoring is a security control that tracks and records all activities and transactions performed on a database, especially by privileged users or accounts. Database access monitoring can help address the risk of privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire by detecting and alerting any unauthorized or abnormal access or actions on the database. The other options are not as effective as database access monitoring in addressing the risk, as they may cause disruption to the business or violate the access management policy. Modifying applications to no longer require direct access to the database is a complex and costly solution that may affect the functionality or performance of the applications, and it may not be feasible or practical in a 24/7 processing environment. Modifying the access management policy to make allowances for application accounts is a risky solution that may create exceptions or loopholes in the policy, and it may not comply with the best practices or standards for password management. Scheduling downtime to implement password changes is a disruptive solution that may affect the availability or continuity of the systems or applications, and it may not be acceptable or possible in a 24/7 processing environment. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
An IS auditor will be testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics on the entire population of transactions. Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data?
The data is taken directly from the system.
There is no privacy information in the data.
The data can be obtained in a timely manner.
The data analysis tools have been recently updated.
The most important thing for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data for testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics is that the data is taken directly from the system. Taking the data directly from the system can help ensure that the data is authentic, complete, and accurate, and that it has not been manipulated or modified by any intermediary sources or processes. The other options are not as important as taking the data directly from the system, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. There is no privacy information in the data is a privacy concern that can help protect the confidentiality and integrity of personal or sensitive data, but it does not affect the accuracy or completeness of the data. The data can be obtained in a timely manner is a logistical concern that can help facilitate the efficiency and effectiveness of the data analytics process, but it does not affect the authenticity or accuracy of the data. The data analysis tools have been recently updated is a technical concern that can help enhance the functionality and performance of the data analytics tools, but it does not affect the validity or reliability of the data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
What should be the PRIMARY basis for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year?
Senior management's request
Prior year's audit findings
Organizational risk assessment
Previous audit coverage and scope
 The primary basis for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year is the organizational risk assessment. An organizational risk assessment is a formal process for identifying, evaluating, and controlling risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and objectives3. An organizational risk assessment can help IS auditors prioritize and plan their audit activities based on the level of risk exposure and impact of each area or process within the organization. An organizational risk assessment can also help IS auditors align their audit objectives and criteria with the organization’s strategy and performance indicators. Senior management’s request, prior year’s audit findings, and previous audit coverage and scope are also possible bases for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year, but not as primary as the organizational risk assessment. These factors are more secondary or supplementary sources of information that can help IS auditors refine or adjust their audit plan based on specific needs or issues identified by management or previous audits. However, these factors may not reflect the current or emerging risks that may affect the organization’s operations or performance. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 295
An IS auditor is following up on prior period items and finds management did not address an audit finding. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT course of action?
Note the exception in a new report as the item was not addressed by management.
Recommend alternative solutions to address the repeat finding.
Conduct a risk assessment of the repeat finding.
Interview management to determine why the finding was not addressed.
 If an IS auditor finds that management did not address a prior period audit finding, the next course of action should be to interview management to determine why the finding was not addressed, as this would help to understand the root cause, the impact, and the risk level of the issue. Noting the exception in a new report, recommending alternative solutions, or conducting a risk assessment are possible subsequent steps, but they should not precede interviewing management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.6
An IS auditor is evaluating an organization's IT strategy and plans. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?
There is not a defined IT security policy.
The business strategy meeting minutes are not distributed.
IT is not engaged in business strategic planning.
There is inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning.
 The greatest concern for an IS auditor when evaluating an organization’s IT strategy and plans is that IT is not engaged in business strategic planning, as this indicates a lack of alignment between IT and business objectives, which could result in inefficient and ineffective use of IT resources and capabilities. The absence of a defined IT security policy, the nondistribution of business strategy meeting minutes, and the inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning are also issues that should be addressed by an IS auditor, but they are not as significant as IT’s noninvolvement in business strategic planning. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.1
A data breach has occurred due lo malware. Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?
Notify the cyber insurance company.
Shut down the affected systems.
Quarantine the impacted systems.
Notify customers of the breach.
 The first course of action when a data breach has occurred due to malware is to quarantine the impacted systems. This means isolating the infected systems from the rest of the network and preventing any further communication or data transfer with them. This can help contain the spread of the malware, limit the damage and exposure of sensitive data, and facilitate the investigation and remediation of the incident. Quarantining the impacted systems can also help preserve the evidence and logs that may be needed for forensic analysis or legal action.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST justification for deferring remediation testing until the next audit?
The auditor who conducted the audit and agreed with the timeline has left the organization.
Management's planned actions are sufficient given the relative importance of the observations.
Auditee management has accepted all observations reported by the auditor.
The audit environment has changed significantly.
Deferring remediation testing until the next audit is justified only when there are significant changes in the audit environment that affect the relevance or validity of the audit observations and recommendations. For example, if there are changes in the business processes, systems, regulations, or risks that require a new audit scope or approach. The other options are not valid justifications for deferring remediation testing, as they do not address the timeliness or quality of the audit follow-up process. The auditor who conducted the audit and agreed with the timeline has left the organization does not affect the responsibility of the audit function to ensure that remediation testing is performed as planned. Management’s planned actions are sufficient given the relative importance of the observations does not guarantee that management will actually implement those actions or that they will be effective in addressing the audit issues. Auditee management has accepted all observations reported by the auditor does not eliminate the need for verification of remediation actions by an independent party. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
Which of the following should an IS auditor be MOST concerned with during a post-implementation review?
The system does not have a maintenance plan.
The system contains several minor defects.
The system deployment was delayed by three weeks.
The system was over budget by 15%.
A post-implementation review (PIR) is an assessment conducted at the end of a project cycle to determine if the project was indeed successful and to identify any existing flaws in the project1. One of the main objectives of a PIR is to evaluate the outcome and functional value of a project1. Therefore, an IS auditor should be most concerned with whether the system meets the intended requirements and delivers the expected benefits to the stakeholders. A system that does not have a maintenance plan is a major risk, as it may not be able to cope with changing needs, fix errors, or prevent security breaches. A maintenance plan is essential for ensuring the system’s reliability, availability, and performance in the long term2.
The other options are less critical for a PIR, as they are more related to the project management aspects than the system quality aspects. The system may contain several minor defects that do not affect its functionality or usability, and these can be resolved in future updates. The system deployment may be delayed by three weeks due to unforeseen circumstances or dependencies, but this does not necessarily mean that the system is faulty or ineffective. The system may be over budget by 15% due to various factors such as scope creep, resource constraints, or market fluctuations, but this does not imply that the system is not valuable or beneficial.
References:Â 1: Post-Implementation Review Best Practices - MetaPMÂ 2: What is Post-Implementation Review in Project Management?
During an external review, an IS auditor observes an inconsistent approach in classifying system criticality within the organization. Which of the following should be recommended as the PRIMARY factor to determine system criticality?
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Maximum allowable downtime (MAD)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Mean time to restore (MTTR)
The primary factor to determine system criticality within an organization is the maximum allowable downtime (MAD). MAD is the maximum time frame during which recovery must become effective before an outage compromises the ability of an organization to achieve its business objectives and/or survival. MAD reflects the business impact of a system outage on the organization’s operations, reputation, compliance, and finances. MAD can help to prioritize system recovery efforts, allocate resources, and establish recovery objectives.
Which of the following fire suppression systems needs to be combined with an automatic switch to shut down the electricity supply in the event of activation?
Carbon dioxide
FM-200
Dry pipe
Halon
 Carbon dioxide fire suppression systems need to be combined with an automatic switch to shut down the electricity supply in the event of activation. This is because carbon dioxide displaces oxygen in the air and can create a suffocation hazard for people in the protected area. Therefore, it is essential to cut off the power source before releasing carbon dioxide to avoid electrical shocks and sparks that could ignite the fire again. Carbon dioxide systems are typically used for total flooding applications in spaces that are not habitable, such as server rooms or data centers.Â
An IS audit reveals that an organization is not proactively addressing known vulnerabilities. Which of the following should the IS auditor recommend the organization do FIRST?
Verify the disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been tested.
Ensure the intrusion prevention system (IPS) is effective.
Assess the security risks to the business.
Confirm the incident response team understands the issue.
If an IS audit reveals that an organization is not proactively addressing known vulnerabilities, the IS auditor should recommend that the organization assess the security risks to the business first, as this would help to prioritize the vulnerabilities based on their impact and likelihood, and determine the appropriate mitigation strategies. Verifying the disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been tested, ensuring the intrusion prevention system (IPS) is effective, and confirming the incident response team understands the issue are important steps, but they are not as urgent as assessing the security risks to the business. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.6
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing follow-up audits?
Audit cycle defined in the audit plan
Complexity of management's action plans
Recommendation from executive management
Residual risk from the findings of previous audits
Residual risk from the findings of previous audits should be the primary basis for prioritizing follow-up audits, because it reflects the level of exposure and potential impact that remains after management has implemented corrective actions or accepted the risk. Follow-up audits should focus on verifying whether the residual risk is within acceptable levels and whether the corrective actions are effective and sustainable. Audit cycle defined in the audit plan, complexity of management’s action plans, and recommendation from executive management are not valid criteria for prioritizing follow-up audits, because they do not consider the residual risk from previous audits. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4.3
Which of the following is the MOST important prerequisite for the protection of physical information assets in a data center?
Segregation of duties between staff ordering and staff receiving information assets
Complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed
Availability and testing of onsite backup generators
Knowledge of the IT staff regarding data protection requirements
The most important prerequisite for the protection of physical information assets in a data center is a complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed. Information assets are any data, devices, systems, or software that have value for the organization and need to be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction4. A data center is a facility that houses various information assets such as servers, storage devices, network equipment, etc., that support the organization’s IT operations and services5. A complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed in a data center can help to identify and classify the assets based on their importance, sensitivity, or criticality for the organization. This can help to determine the appropriate level of protection and security measures that need to be applied to each asset. A complete and accurate list of information assets can also help to track and monitor the location, status, ownership, usage, configuration, maintenance, etc., of each asset. This can help to prevent or detect any unauthorized or inappropriate changes or movements of assets that may compromise their security or integrity. Segregation of duties between staff ordering and staff receiving information assets, availability and testing of onsite backup generators, and knowledge of the IT staff regarding data protection requirements are also important prerequisites for the protection of physical information assets in a data center, but not as important as a complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed. These factors are more related to the implementation and maintenance of security controls and procedures that depend on having a complete and accurate list of information assets as a starting point. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 308
During a review of a production schedule, an IS auditor observes that a staff member is not complying with mandatory operational procedures. The auditor's NEXT step should be to:
note the noncompliance in the audit working papers.
issue an audit memorandum identifying the noncompliance.
include the noncompliance in the audit report.
determine why the procedures were not followed.
An organization has outsourced its data processing function to a service provider. Which of the following would BEST determine whether the service provider continues to meet the organization s objectives?
Assessment of the personnel training processes of the provider
Adequacy of the service provider's insurance
Review of performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
Periodic audits of controls by an independent auditor
Reviewing the performance against service level agreements (SLAs) would best determine whether the service provider continues to meet the organization’s objectives, as SLAs define the expected level of service, quality, availability, and responsibilities of both parties. Assessment of the personnel training processes of the provider, adequacy of the service provider’s insurance, and periodic audits of controls by an independent auditor are important aspects of outsourcing, but they do not directly measure the performance of the service provider against the organization’s objectives. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.5.2
During an incident management audit, an IS auditor finds that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period. Which of the following is the auditor's MOST important course of action?
Document the finding and present it to management.
Determine if a root cause analysis was conducted.
Confirm the resolution time of the incidents.
Validate whether all incidents have been actioned.
The IS auditor’s most important course of action after finding that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period is to determine if a root cause analysis was conducted. A root cause analysis is a systematic process that identifies the underlying causes of system failures or incidents. A root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of similar incidents, improve system performance and reliability, and enhance incident management processes. The IS auditor should evaluate whether a root cause analysis was performed for each incident, whether it was timely and thorough, and whether it resulted in effective corrective actions.
When an intrusion into an organization network is deleted, which of the following should be done FIRST?
Block all compromised network nodes.
Contact law enforcement.
Notify senior management.
Identity nodes that have been compromised.
 The first thing that should be done when an intrusion into an organization network is detected is to identify nodes that have been compromised. Identifying nodes that have been compromised is a critical step in responding to an intrusion, as it helps determine the scope, impact, and source of the attack, and enables the implementation of appropriate containment and recovery measures. The other options are not the first things that should be done when an intrusion into an organization network is detected, as they may be premature or ineffective without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Blocking all compromised network nodes is a containment measure that can help isolate and prevent the spread of the attack, but it may not be possible or feasible without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Contacting law enforcement is a reporting measure that can help seek external assistance and comply with legal obligations, but it may not be necessary or appropriate without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Notifying senior management is a communication measure that can help inform and escalate the incident, but it may not be urgent or accurate without identifying nodes that have been compromised. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2
Which of the following would MOST likely impair the independence of the IS auditor when performing a post-implementation review of an application system?
The IS auditor provided consulting advice concerning application system best practices.
The IS auditor participated as a member of the application system project team, but did not have operational responsibilities.
The IS auditor designed an embedded audit module exclusively for auditing the application system.
The IS auditor implemented a specific control during the development of the application system.
 The IS auditor’s independence would be most likely impaired if they implemented a specific control during the development of an application system. This is because the IS auditor would be auditing their own work, which creates a self-review threat that could compromise their objectivity and impartiality. The IS auditor should avoid participating in any operational or management activities that could affect their ability to perform an unbiased audit. The other options do not pose a significant threat to the IS auditor’s independence, as long as they follow the ethical standards and guidelines of the profession.
To confirm integrity for a hashed message, the receiver should use:
the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a binary image of the file.
a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a binary image of the file.
the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.
a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.
 To confirm integrity for a hashed message, the receiver should use the same hashing algorithm as the sender’s to create a binary image of the file. A hashing algorithm is a mathematical function that transforms an input data into a fixed-length output value, called a hash or a digest. A hashing algorithm has two main properties: it is one-way, meaning that it is easy to compute the hash from the input, but hard to recover the input from the hash; and it is collision-resistant, meaning that it is very unlikely to find two different inputs that produce the same hash. These properties make hashing algorithms useful for verifying the integrity of data, as any change in the input data will result in a different hash value. Therefore, to confirm integrity for a hashed message, the receiver should use the same hashing algorithm as the sender’s to create a binary image of the file, which is a representation of the file in bits (0s and 1s). The receiver should then compare this binary image with the hash value sent by the sender. If they match, then the message has not been altered in transit. If they do not match, then the message has been corrupted or tampered with.
References:
When determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, what is BEST to compare against the business case?
Implementation plan
Project budget provisions
Requirements analysis
Project plan
Requirements analysis should be the best thing to compare against the business case when determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, because it defines the functional and non-functional specifications of the project deliverables that should satisfy the business needs and expectations. Requirements analysis can help evaluate whether the project design is aligned with the business case and whether it can achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Implementation plan, project budget provisions, and project plan are also important aspects of a project in the design phase, but they are not as relevant as requirements analysis for comparing against the business case. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1
During the implementation of an upgraded enterprise resource planning (ERP) system, which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a go-live decision?
Rollback strategy
Test cases
Post-implementation review objectives
Business case
 The most important consideration for a go-live decision when implementing an upgraded enterprise resource planning (ERP) system is the business case. The business case is the document that defines and justifies the need, value, feasibility, and risks of the project. It also outlines the expected costs, benefits, outcomes, and impacts of the project. The business case provides the basis for measuring and evaluating the success of the project. Therefore, before deciding to go live with an upgraded ERP system, it is essential to review and validate the business case to ensure that it is still relevant, accurate, realistic, and achievable.
A rollback strategy, test cases, and post-implementation review objectives are not the most important considerations for a go-live decision when implementing an upgraded ERP system. These are important elements of project planning, execution, and evaluation, but they are not sufficient to determine whether the project is worth pursuing or delivering. These elements should be aligned with and derived from the business case.
Which of the following is an audit reviewer's PRIMARY role with regard to evidence?
Ensuring unauthorized individuals do not tamper with evidence after it has been captured
Ensuring evidence is sufficient to support audit conclusions
Ensuring appropriate statistical sampling methods were used
Ensuring evidence is labeled to show it was obtained from an approved source
The primary role of an audit reviewer with regard to evidence is to ensure that evidence is sufficient to support audit conclusions. Evidence is the information obtained by the auditor to provide a reasonable basis for the audit opinion or findings. Evidence should be sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful to support the audit objectives and criteria. The audit reviewer should evaluate the quality and quantity of evidence collected by the auditor and determine if it is adequate to draw valid conclusions and recommendations. Ensuring unauthorized individuals do not tamper with evidence after it has been captured is a role of the auditor, not the audit reviewer. The auditor is responsible for safeguarding the evidence from loss, damage, or alteration during the audit process. The auditor should also document the source, date, and method of obtaining the evidence, as well as any limitations or restrictions on its use or disclosure. Ensuring appropriate statistical sampling methods were used is a role of the auditor, not the audit reviewer. The auditor is responsible for selecting an appropriate sampling method and technique that can provide sufficient evidence to achieve the audit objectives and criteria. The auditor should also document the sampling plan, population, sample size, selection method, evaluation method, and results. Ensuring evidence is labeled to show it was obtained from an approved source is a role of the auditor, not the audit reviewer. The auditor is responsible for labeling the evidence to indicate its origin, nature, and ownership. The auditor should also ensure that the evidence is obtained from reliable and credible sources that can be verified and corroborated. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 295
An IS auditor who was instrumental in designing an application is called upon to review the application. The auditor should:
refuse the assignment to avoid conflict of interest.
use the knowledge of the application to carry out the audit.
inform audit management of the earlier involvement.
modify the scope of the audit.
The IS auditor should inform audit management of the earlier involvement in designing the application. This is to ensure that there is no conflict of interest or bias that may affect the objectivity or independence of the audit. Audit management can then decide whether to assign a different auditor or to proceed with the same auditor with appropriate safeguards. The other options are not appropriate for the IS auditor to do in this situation. Refusing the assignment to avoid conflict of interest is an extreme measure that may not be necessary or feasible, especially if there are no other qualified auditors available. Using the knowledge of the application to carry out the audit is risky, as it may lead to overlooking or ignoring potential issues or errors in the application. Modifying the scope of the audit is not advisable, as it may compromise the quality or completeness of the audit. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.1
An IS auditor is examining a front-end subledger and a main ledger. Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern if there are flaws in the mapping of accounts between the two systems?
Double-posting of a single journal entry
Inability to support new business transactions
Unauthorized alteration of account attributes
Inaccuracy of financial reporting
 The greatest concern for an IS auditor if there are flaws in the mapping of accounts between a front-end subledger and a main ledger is the inaccuracy of financial reporting. A subledger is a detailed record of transactions for a specific account, such as accounts receivable, accounts payable, inventory, or fixed assets. A main ledger is a summary record of all transactions for all accounts in an accounting system. The mapping of accounts between a subledger and a main ledger is the process of linking or reconciling the transactions in the subledger with the corresponding entries in the main ledger. If there are flaws in the mapping of accounts, such as missing, duplicated, or incorrect transactions, the main ledger may not reflect the true financial position and performance of the organization. This may lead to inaccurate financial reporting, which may affect decision making, compliance, auditing, taxation, and stakeholder confidence.
Double-posting of a single journal entry, inability to support new business transactions, and unauthorized alteration of account attributes are not the greatest concerns for an IS auditor if there are flaws in the mapping of accounts between a front-end subledger and a main ledger. These are possible consequences or causes of flaws in the mapping of accounts, but they do not have as significant an impact as inaccuracy of financial reporting. Double-posting of a single journal entry may result in errors or discrepancies in the main ledger balances. Inability to support new business transactions may indicate limitations or inefficiencies in the accounting system design or configuration. Unauthorized alteration of account attributes may suggest weaknesses or breaches in access control or segregation of duties.
An incorrect version of the source code was amended by a development team. This MOST likely indicates a weakness in:
incident management.
quality assurance (QA).
change management.
project management.
 A weakness in change management is the most likely cause of an incorrect version of source code being amended by a development team. Change management is the process of controlling and documenting changes to IT systems and software. It ensures that changes are authorized, tested, and implemented in a controlled manner. If change management is weak, there is a risk of using outdated or incorrect versions of source code, which can lead to errors, defects, or security vulnerabilities in the software.Â
Which of the following would be to MOST concern when determine if information assets are adequately safequately safeguarded during transport and disposal?
Lack of appropriate labelling
Lack of recent awareness training.
Lack of password protection
Lack of appropriate data classification
The most concerning issue when determining if information assets are adequately safeguarded during transport and disposal is lack of appropriate data classification. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or levels of sensitivity to different types of information assets based on their value, criticality, or risk to the organization. Data classification can help safeguard information assets during transport and disposal by providing criteria and guidelines for identifying, labeling, handling, and protecting information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of appropriate data classification can compromise the security and confidentiality of information assets during transport and disposal by exposing them to unauthorized access, disclosure, theft, damage, or destruction. The other options are not as concerning as lack of appropriate data classification in safeguarding information assets during transport and disposal, as they do not affect the identification, labeling, handling, or protection of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of appropriate labeling is a possible factor that may increase the risk of misplacing, losing, or mishandling information assets during transport and disposal, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of recent awareness training is a possible factor that may affect the knowledge or behavior of staff involved in transporting or disposing of information assets, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of password protection is a possible factor that may affect the security or confidentiality of information assets stored on devices during transport and disposal, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
Which of the following is a social engineering attack method?
An unauthorized person attempts to gam access to secure premises by following an authonzed person through a secure door.
An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone.
A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access.
An intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties.
 An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone. This is a social engineering attack method that exploits the trust or curiosity of the employee to obtain sensitive information that can be used to access or compromise the network. According to the web search results, social engineering is a technique that uses psychological manipulation to trick users into making security mistakes or giving away sensitive information1. Phishing, whaling, baiting, and pretexting are some of the common forms of social engineering attacks2. Social engineering attacks are often more effective and profitable than purely technical attacks, as they rely on human error rather than system vulnerabilities
Which of the following would be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project?
The lack of technical documentation to support the program code
The lack of completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint
The lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements.
The lack of a detailed unit and system test plan
 User requirements are statements that describe what the users expect from the software system in terms of functionality, quality, and usability. They are essential inputs for the software development process, as they guide the design, implementation, testing, and deployment of the system. Therefore, an IS auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project would be the lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements. Acceptance criteria are measurable conditions that define when a user requirement is met or satisfied. They help ensure that the user requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and verifiable. Without acceptance criteria, it would be difficult to evaluate whether the system meets the user expectations and delivers value to the organization. Technical documentation, such as program code, is usually produced in later stages of the software development process. Completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint is not mandatory in agile software development methods, as long as there is a prioritized backlog of requirements that can be delivered incrementally. A detailed unit and system test plan is also important for ensuring software quality, but it depends on well-defined user requirements and acceptance criteria. References: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
An IS auditor is conducting a post-implementation review of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. End users indicated concerns with the accuracy of critical automatic calculations made by the system. The auditor's FIRST course of action should be to:
review recent changes to the system.
verify completeness of user acceptance testing (UAT).
verify results to determine validity of user concerns.
review initial business requirements.
The IS auditor’s first course of action should be to verify the results of the critical automatic calculations made by the system to determine the validity of user concerns. This is because the IS auditor needs to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence to support the audit findings and conclusions. By verifying the results, the IS auditor can assess whether there are any errors or discrepancies in the system’s calculations that could affect the accuracy and reliability of the financial data. The IS auditor can use various techniques to verify the results, such as re-performing the calculations, comparing them with expected values, or tracing them to source documents.Â
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether a test of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) was successful?
Analyze whether predetermined test objectives were met.
Perform testing at the backup data center.
Evaluate participation by key personnel.
Test offsite backup files.
The best way to determine whether a test of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) was successful is to analyze whether predetermined test objectives were met. Test objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that define what the test aims to accomplish and how it will be evaluated. Test objectives should be aligned with the DRP objectives and scope, and should cover aspects such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), critical business functions, roles and responsibilities, communication channels, backup systems, and contingency procedures. By comparing the actual test results with the expected test objectives, the IS auditor can measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the DRP and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed.Â
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization's privacy policy?
Whether there is explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data
The organization's legitimate purpose for collecting personal data
Whether sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is prohibited
The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data
 The most important thing for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization’s privacy policy is its legitimate purpose for collecting personal data. A legitimate purpose is a clear and specific reason for collecting personal data that is necessary for the organization’s business operations or legal obligations, and that respects the rights and interests of the data subjects. A legitimate purpose is the basis for establishing a lawful and fair processing of personal data, and it should be communicated to the data subjects in the privacy policy. The other options are not as important as the legitimate purpose in reviewing the privacy policy. Explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data is not always required, as there may be other lawful bases for data collection, such as consent, contract, or public interest. Sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is not prohibited, as long as there are adequate safeguards and agreements in place to protect the data. The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data is a technical control that can enhance data security, but it does not determine the legality or fairness of data collection. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
When implementing Internet Protocol security (IPsec) architecture, the servers involved in application delivery:
communicate via Transport Layer Security (TLS),
block authorized users from unauthorized activities.
channel access only through the public-facing firewall.
channel access through authentication.
When implementing Internet Protocol security (IPsec) architecture, the servers involved in application delivery communicate via Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. IPsec operates at the network layer and provides security for IP packets, while TLS operates at the transport layer and provides security for TCP connections. Blocking authorized users from unauthorized activities, channeling access only through the public-facing firewall, and channeling access through authentication are not functions of IPsec architecture. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2
An organization conducted an exercise to test the security awareness level of users by sending an email offering a cash reward 10 those who click on a link embedded in the body of the email. Which of the following metrics BEST indicates the effectiveness of awareness training?
The number of users deleting the email without reporting because it is a phishing email
The number of users clicking on the link to learn more about the sender of the email
The number of users forwarding the email to their business unit managers
The number of users reporting receipt of the email to the information security team
 The metric that best indicates the effectiveness of awareness training is the number of users reporting receipt of the email to the information security team. This shows that the users are able to recognize and report a phishing email, which is a common social engineering technique used by attackers to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malicious software. The other metrics do not demonstrate a high level of security awareness, as they either ignore, follow, or forward the phishing email, which could expose the organization to potential risks. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 326
Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the transfer of files to external parties through instant messaging (IM) applications?
File level encryption
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Instant messaging policy
Application-level firewalls
Application level firewalls are the best control to prevent the transfer of files to external parties through instant messaging (IM) applications, because they can inspect and filter network traffic based on application-specific protocols and commands, such as IM file transfer commands. Application level firewalls can block or allow IM file transfers based on predefined rules or policies. File level encryption, file transfer protocol (FTP), and instant messaging policy are not effective controls to prevent IM file transfers, because they do not restrict or monitor IM network traffic. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1
During a follow-up audit, an IS auditor learns that some key management personnel have been replaced since the original audit, and current management has decided not to implement some previously accepted recommendations. What is the auditor's BEST course of action?
Notify the chair of the audit committee.
Notify the audit manager.
Retest the control.
Close the audit finding.
 The auditor’s best course of action in this situation is to notify the audit manager. The audit manager is responsible for overseeing the audit follow-up process and ensuring that audit issues are resolved in a timely and satisfactory manner. The audit manager can then decide whether to escalate the matter to higher authorities, such as the chair of the audit committee, or to accept management’s decision and close the audit finding. The other options are not appropriate for the auditor to do without consulting with the audit manager first. Notifying the chair of the audit committee is a drastic step that may undermine the relationship between the auditor and management, and it should be done only after exhausting other means of resolving the issue. Retesting the control is not necessary, as management has already decided not to implement the recommendations. Closing the audit finding is premature, as management’s decision may not be aligned with the audit objectives or risk appetite. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
Which of the following would BEST demonstrate that an effective disaster recovery plan (DRP) is in place?
Frequent testing of backups
Annual walk-through testing
Periodic risk assessment
Full operational test
A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of procedures and resources that enable an organization to restore its critical operations, data, and applications in the event of a disaster1. A DRP should be aligned with the organization’s business continuity plan (BCP), which defines the strategies and objectives for maintaining business functions during and after a disaster1.
To ensure that a DRP is effective, it should be tested regularly and thoroughly to identify and resolve any issues or gaps that might hinder its execution2345. Testing a DRP can help evaluate its feasibility, validity, reliability, and compatibility with the organization’s environment and needs4. Testing can also help prepare the staff, stakeholders, and vendors involved in the DRP for their roles and responsibilities during a disaster3.
There are different methods and levels of testing a DRP, depending on the scope, complexity, and objectives of the test4. Some of the common testing methods are:
Among these methods, full interruption testing would best demonstrate that an effective DRP is in place, as it provides the most accurate and comprehensive evaluation of the plan’s capabilities and limitations4. Full interruption testing can reveal any hidden or unforeseen issues or risks that might affect the recovery process, such as data loss, system failure, compatibility problems, or human errors4. Full interruption testing can also verify that the backup site can support the critical operations and services of the organization without compromising its quality or security4.
However, full interruption testing also has some drawbacks, such as being costly, time-consuming, risky, and disruptive to the normal operations4. Therefore, it should be planned carefully and conducted periodically with proper coordination and communication among all parties involved4.
The other options are not as effective as full interruption testing in demonstrating that an effective DRP is in place. Frequent testing of backups is only one aspect of checklist testing, which does not cover other components or scenarios of the DRP4. Annual walk-through testing is only a theoretical review of the DRP, which does not test its practical implementation or outcomes4. Periodic risk assessment is only a preparatory step for developing or updating the DRP, which does not test its functionality or performance4.
References: 2: Best Practices For Disaster Recovery Testing | Snyk 3: Disaster Recovery Plan (DR) Testing — Methods and Must-haves - US Signal 4: Disaster Recovery Testing: What You Need to Know - Enterprise Storage Forum 5: Disaster Recovery Testing Best Practices - MSP360 1: How to Test a Disaster Recovery Plan - Abacus
During the design phase of a software development project, the PRIMARY responsibility of an IS auditor is to evaluate the:
Future compatibility of the application.
Proposed functionality of the application.
Controls incorporated into the system specifications.
Development methodology employed.
The primary responsibility of an IS auditor during the design phase of a software development project is to evaluate the controls incorporated into the system specifications. Controls are mechanisms or procedures that aim to ensure the security, reliability, or performance of a system or process. System specifications are documents that define and describe the requirements, features, functions, or components of a system or software. Evaluating the controls incorporated into the system specifications is a key responsibility of an IS auditor during the design phase of a software development project, as it helps ensure that the system or software meets the organization’s objectives, standards, and expectations for security, reliability, or performance. The other options are not primary responsibilities of an IS auditor during the design phase of a software development project, as they do not directly relate to evaluating the controls incorporated into the system specifications. Future compatibility of the application is a possible factor that may affect the functionality or usability of the application in different environments or platforms, but it is not a primary responsibility of an IS auditor during the design phase of a software development project. Proposed functionality of the application is a possible factor that may affect the suitability or value of the application for meeting user needs or expectations, but it is not a primary responsibility of an IS auditor during the design phase of a software development project. Development methodology employed is a possible factor that may affect the quality or consistency of the software development process, but it is not a primary responsibility of an IS auditor during the design phase of a software development project. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an IS auditor to conduct post-implementation reviews?
To determine whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved
To ensure key stakeholder sign-off has been obtained
To align project objectives with business needs
To document lessons learned to improve future project delivery
 The primary reason for an IS auditor to conduct post-implementation reviews is to determine whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved. A post-implementation review is an audit activity that evaluates whether a project has delivered its expected outcomes or benefits in accordance with its objectives, scope, budget, and schedule. A business case is a document that defines and justifies the need, value, and feasibility of a project. A post-implementation review can help assess whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved by comparing actual results with planned expectations and identifying any gaps or deviations. The other options are not primary reasons for conducting post-implementation reviews, as they do not measure whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved. Ensuring key stakeholder sign-off has been obtained is a project closure activity that confirms that all project deliverables have been completed and accepted by key stakeholders, but it does not evaluate whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved. Aligning project objectives with business needs is a project initiation activity that ensures that the project is aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and priorities, but it does not evaluate whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved. Documenting lessons learned to improve future project delivery is a project learning activity that captures and shares the knowledge, experience, and feedback gained from the project, but it does not evaluate whether project objectives in the business case have been achieved. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
What is the BEST control to address SQL injection vulnerabilities?
Unicode translation
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
Input validation
Digital signatures
 Input validation is the best control to address SQL injection vulnerabilities, because it can prevent malicious users from entering SQL commands or statements into input fields that are intended for data entry, such as usernames or passwords. SQL injection is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s software by inserting SQL code into a query string that can execute commands on a database server. Unicode translation, SSL encryption, and digital signatures are not effective controls against SQL injection, because they do not prevent or detect SQL code injection into input fields. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2
Which of the following tests would provide the BEST assurance that a health care organization is handling patient data appropriately?
Compliance with action plans resulting from recent audits
Compliance with local laws and regulations
Compliance with industry standards and best practice
Compliance with the organization's policies and procedures
The best test to provide assurance that a health care organization is handling patient data appropriately is compliance with local laws and regulations, as these are the primary sources of authority and obligation for data protection and privacy. Compliance with action plans, industry standards, or organizational policies and procedures are also important, but they may not cover all the legal requirements or reflect the current best practices for handling patient data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.3
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks?
Invoking the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Backing up data frequently
Paying the ransom
Requiring password changes for administrative accounts
Ransomware is a type of malicious software that encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for its decryption1. Ransomware attacks can cause significant damage to an organization’s operations, reputation, and finances1. Therefore, it is important to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks by implementing effective prevention and recovery strategies.
One of the best ways to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks is to back up data frequently12345. Data backups are copies of the organization’s data that are stored in a separate location or medium, such as an external hard drive, cloud storage, or tape2. Data backups can help the organization restore its data in case of a ransomware attack, without paying the ransom or losing valuable information2. Data backups should be performed regularly, preferably daily or weekly, depending on the criticality and volume of the data2. Data backups should also be tested periodically to ensure their integrity and usability2.
The other options are not as effective as backing up data frequently in mitigating the impact of ransomware attacks. Invoking the disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a reactive measure that can help the organization resume its operations after a ransomware attack, but it does not prevent or reduce the damage caused by the attack3. Paying the ransom is not a recommended option, as it does not guarantee the decryption of the data or the deletion of the stolen data by the attackers. Paying the ransom also encourages further attacks and funds criminal activities14. Requiring password changes for administrative accounts is a good security practice, but it is not sufficient to prevent or recover from ransomware attacks. Ransomware attacks can exploit other vulnerabilities, such as phishing emails, outdated software, or weak network security15.
References: 1: How to Mitigate the Risk of Ransomware Attacks: The Definitive Guide 2: Mitigating malware and ransomware attacks - The National Cyber Security Centre 3: 3 steps to prevent and recover from ransomware 4: Ransomware Epidemic: Use these 8 Strategies to Mitigate Risk 5: Practical Steps to Mitigate Ransomware Attacks - ITSecurityWire
During an audit of a reciprocal disaster recovery agreement between two companies, the IS auditor would be MOST concerned with the:
allocation of resources during an emergency.
frequency of system testing.
differences in IS policies and procedures.
maintenance of hardware and software compatibility.
 During an audit of a reciprocal disaster recovery agreement between two companies, the IS auditor would be most concerned with the allocation of resources during an emergency. A reciprocal disaster recovery agreement is an arrangement by which one organization agrees to use another’s resources in the event of a business continuity event or incident. The IS auditor would need to ensure that both parties have clearly defined their roles and responsibilities, their resource requirements, their priority levels, their communication channels, and their escalation procedures in case of a disaster. The IS auditor would also need to verify that both parties have tested their agreement and have updated it regularly to reflect any changes in their business environments. The frequency of system testing is not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because system testing can be performed periodically or on demand, while resource allocation is a dynamic and complex process that requires careful planning and coordination. The differences in IS policies and procedures are not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because both parties can agree on common standards and protocols for their disaster recovery operations, or they can adapt their policies and procedures to suit each other’s needs. The maintenance of hardware and software compatibility is not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because both parties can use compatible or interoperable systems, or they can use virtualization or cloud computing technologies to overcome any compatibility issues. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 281
An IS auditor found that a company executive is encouraging employee use of social networking sites for business purposes. Which of the following recommendations would BEST help to reduce the risk of data leakage?
Requiring policy acknowledgment and nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) signed by employees
Establishing strong access controls on confidential data
Providing education and guidelines to employees on use of social networking sites
Monitoring employees' social networking usage
 The best recommendation to reduce the risk of data leakage from employee use of social networking sites for business purposes is to provide education and guidelines to employees on use of social networking sites. Education and guidelines can help employees understand the benefits and risks of using social media for business purposes, such as enhancing brand awareness, engaging with customers, or sharing industry insights. They can also inform employees about the dos and don’ts of social media etiquette, such as respecting privacy, protecting intellectual property, avoiding conflicts of interest, or complying with legal obligations. Education and guidelines can also raise awareness of potential data leakage scenarios, such as phishing attacks, malicious links, fake profiles, or oversharing sensitive information, and provide tips on how to prevent or respond to them.Â
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to project against data loss?
Limit employee internet access.
Implement data classification procedures.
Review firewall logs for anomalies.
Conduct periodic security awareness training.
Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as accidental deletion, hardware failure, malware infection, theft, or unauthorized access. Data classification procedures can help to identify and protect sensitive data, but they are not sufficient to prevent data loss. The most effective way to protect against data loss is to conduct periodic security awareness training for employees, which can educate them on the importance of data security, the best practices for data handling and storage, and the common threats and risks to data.Â
Which of the following will be the MOST effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client?
Conduct periodic on-site assessments using agreed-upon criteria.
Periodically review the service level agreement (SLA) with the vendor.
Conduct an unannounced vulnerability assessment of vendor's IT systems.
Obtain evidence of the vendor's control self-assessment (CSA).
The most effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client is to conduct periodic on-site assessments using agreed-upon criteria. On-site assessments can provide direct evidence of whether the vendor’s controls are operating effectively and consistently in accordance with the client’s expectations and requirements. Agreed-upon criteria can ensure that the assessments are objective, relevant, and reliable. The other options are not as effective as on-site assessments in verifying the vendor’s control levels. Periodically reviewing the SLA with the vendor can help monitor whether the vendor meets its contractual obligations and service standards, but it does not provide assurance of whether the vendor’s controls are adequate or sufficient. Conducting an unannounced vulnerability assessment of vendor’s IT systems can help identify any weaknesses or gaps in the vendor’s security controls, but it may violate the terms and conditions of the vendor-client relationship or cause operational disruptions. Obtaining evidence of the vendor’s CSA can provide some indication of whether the vendor’s controls are self-monitored and reported, but it does not verify whether the vendor’s controls are independent or accurate. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4
The PRIMARY benefit lo using a dry-pipe fire-suppression system rather than a wet-pipe system is that a dry-pipe system:
is more effective at suppressing flames.
allows more time to abort release of the suppressant.
has a decreased risk of leakage.
disperses dry chemical suppressants exclusively.
The primary benefit of using a dry-pipe fire-suppression system rather than a wet-pipe system is that a dry-pipe system has a decreased risk of leakage, as the pipes are filled with pressurized air or nitrogen instead of water until the system is activated. A wet-pipe system has a higher risk of leakage, corrosion, and freezing. A dry-pipe system is not more effective at suppressing flames, as it uses the same water-based suppressant as a wet-pipe system. A dry-pipe system does not allow more time to abort release of the suppressant, as it has a delay of only a few seconds before the water is released. A dry-pipe system does not disperse dry chemical suppressants exclusively, as it uses water as the primary suppressant. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
When auditing the security architecture of an online application, an IS auditor should FIRST review the:
firewall standards.
configuration of the firewall
firmware version of the firewall
location of the firewall within the network
The security architecture of an online application is a design that describes how various security components and controls are integrated and configured to protect the application from internal and external threats. When auditing the security architecture of an online application, an IS auditor should first review the location of the firewall within the network, as this determines how effectively the firewall can filter and monitor the traffic between different network segments and zones. The firewall standards, configuration, and firmware version are also important aspects to review, but they are secondary to the location of the firewall.
Which of the following documents would be MOST useful in detecting a weakness in segregation of duties?
System flowchart
Data flow diagram
Process flowchart
Entity-relationship diagram
The best document for an IS auditor to use in detecting a weakness in segregation of duties is a process flowchart. A process flowchart is a diagram that illustrates the sequence of steps, activities, tasks, or decisions involved in a business process. A process flowchart can help detect a weakness in segregation of duties by showing who performs what actions or roles in a process, and whether there is any overlap or conflict of interest among them. The other options are not as useful as a process flowchart in detecting a weakness in segregation of duties, as they do not show who performs what actions or roles in a process. A system flowchart is a diagram that illustrates the components, functions, interactions, or logic of an information system. A data flow diagram is a diagram that illustrates how data flows from sources to destinations through processes, stores, or external entities. An entity-relationship diagram is a diagram that illustrates how entities (such as tables) are related to each other through attributes (such as keys) in a database. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Projected impact of current business on future business
Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business
Cost of regulatory compliance
Expected costs for recovering the business
The expected costs for recovering the business would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions to critical business functions or processes. A BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, strategies, and resources needed to resume normal operations after a disruption. One of the key outputs of a BIA is an estimate of the financial losses or costs associated with different types of disruptions, such as lost revenue, increased expenses, contractual penalties, or regulatory fines.
Which of the following is MOST important to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures?
Assuring the physical security of devices
Preserving data integrity
Maintaining chain of custody
Determining tools to be used
 The most important thing to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures is preserving data integrity. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, and consistent throughout its lifecycle. Preserving data integrity is essential for forensic data collection and preservation procedures because it ensures that the data can be used as valid and reliable evidence in legal proceedings or investigations. Preserving data integrity can be achieved by using methods such as hashing, checksums, digital signatures, write blockers, tamper-evident seals, or timestamps. The other options are not as important as preserving data integrity in forensic data collection and preservation procedures, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. Assuring the physical security of devices is a security measure that protects devices from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Maintaining chain of custody is a documentation technique that records and tracks the handling and transfer of devices or data among different parties involved in forensic activities, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Determining tools to be used is a planning activity that selects and prepares the appropriate tools for forensic data collection and preservation procedures, but it does not ensure that the data collected and preserved by the tools is accurate, complete, and consistent. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4
An IS auditor finds that a key Internet-facing system is vulnerable to attack and that patches are not available. What should the auditor recommend be done FIRST?
Implement a new system that can be patched.
Implement additional firewalls to protect the system.
Decommission the server.
Evaluate the associated risk.
The first step in addressing a vulnerability is to evaluate the associated risk, which involves assessing the likelihood and impact of a potential exploit. Based on the risk assessment, the appropriate mitigation strategy can be determined, such as implementing a new system, adding firewalls, or decommissioning the server. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 280
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the successful implementation of an IT-related framework?
Aligning the framework to industry best practices
Establishing committees to support and oversee framework activities
Involving appropriate business representation within the framework
Documenting IT-related policies and procedures
Which of the following should be done FIRST when planning a penetration test?
Execute nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).
Determine reporting requirements for vulnerabilities.
Define the testing scope.
Obtain management consent for the testing.
The first step when planning a penetration test is to obtain management consent for the testing. This is because a penetration test involves simulating a cyberattack against the organization’s systems and networks, which may have legal, ethical, and operational implications. Without proper authorization from management, a penetration test may violate laws, policies, contracts, or service level agreements. Management consent also helps define the objectives, scope, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the stakeholders. Obtaining management consent for the testing also demonstrates due care and due diligence on the part of the testers and the organization.
Executing nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), determining reporting requirements for vulnerabilities, and defining the testing scope are important steps when planning a penetration test, but they are not the first step. These steps should be done after obtaining management consent for the testing, as they depend on the approval and involvement of management and other parties.
Which of the following is the BEST detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission?
Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management.
Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review.
Job failure alerts are automatically generated and routed to support personnel.
 The best detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission is job failure alerts that are automatically generated and routed to support personnel. Job failure alerts are notifications that indicate when a scheduled job or task fails to execute or complete successfully, such as due to errors, interruptions, or delays. Job failure alerts can help detect and correct any issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission by informing and alerting the support personnel who can investigate and resolve the problem. The other options are not as effective as job failure alerts in detecting issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission, as they do not provide timely or specific information or feedback. Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management is a reporting technique that can help measure and improve the performance and reliability of the job scheduling process, but it does not provide immediate or detailed information on individual job failures. Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a preventive control that can help ensure the timeliness and security of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not detect any issues or anomalies that may occur during the process. Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review is a logging technique that can help record and track the status and results of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not provide real-time or proactive information on job failures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
Which of the following demonstrates the use of data analytics for a loan origination process?
Evaluating whether loan records are included in the batch file and are validated by the servicing system
Comparing a population of loans input in the origination system to loans booked on the servicing system
Validating whether reconciliations between the two systems are performed and discrepancies are investigated
Reviewing error handling controls to notify appropriate personnel in the event of a transmission failure
 Data analytics can be used to compare data from different sources and identify any discrepancies or anomalies. In this case, comparing a population of loans input in the origination system to loans booked on the servicing system can help detect any errors or frauds in the loan origination process. The other options are not examples of data analytics, but rather controls for data integrity, reconciliation, and error handling. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2
An IS auditor finds that firewalls are outdated and not supported by vendors. Which of the following should be the auditor's NEXT course of action?
Report the mitigating controls.
Report the security posture of the organization.
Determine the value of the firewall.
Determine the risk of not replacing the firewall.
 The IS auditor’s next course of action after finding that firewalls are outdated and not supported by vendors should be to determine the risk of not replacing the firewall. Outdated firewalls may have known vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to bypass security controls and access the network. They may also lack compatibility with newer technologies or standards that are required for optimal network performance and protection. Not replacing the firewall could expose the organization to various threats, such as data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, malware infections, or regulatory non-compliance. The IS auditor should assess the likelihood and impact of these threats and quantify the risk level for management to make informed decisions.
During the discussion of a draft audit report. IT management provided suitable evidence fiat a process has been implemented for a control that had been concluded by the IS auditor as Ineffective. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST action?
Explain to IT management that the new control will be evaluated during follow-up
Re-perform the audit before changing the conclusion.
Change the conclusion based on evidence provided by IT management.
Add comments about the action taken by IT management in the report.
 The auditor’s best action when IT management provides suitable evidence for a control that had been concluded as ineffective is to re-perform the audit before changing the conclusion. This means that the auditor should verify the validity, completeness, and timeliness of the evidence provided by IT management and test the effectiveness of the new control in meeting the audit objectives. The auditor should not change the conclusion based on evidence provided by IT management without re-performing the audit, as this could compromise the auditor’s independence and objectivity. The auditor should also not explain to IT management that the new control will be evaluated during follow-up or add comments about the action taken by IT management in the report, as these actions do not address the original audit finding. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 439
Which of the following is the BEST data integrity check?
Counting the transactions processed per day
Performing a sequence check
Tracing data back to the point of origin
Preparing and running test data
 Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, consistent, and reliable throughout its lifecycle. The best data integrity check is tracing data back to the point of origin, which is the source where the data was originally created or captured. This check can verify that data has not been altered or corrupted during transmission, processing, or storage. It can also identify any errors or discrepancies in data entry or conversion. Counting the transactions processed per day is a performance measure that does not directly assess data integrity. Performing a sequence check is a validity check that ensures that data follows a predefined order or pattern. It can detect missing or out-of-order data elements, but it cannot verify their accuracy or completeness. Preparing and running test data is a testing technique that simulates real data to evaluate how a system handles different scenarios. It can help identify errors or bugs in the system logic or functionality, but it cannot ensure data integrity in production environments. References: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is the BEST way to address segregation of duties issues in an organization with budget constraints?
Rotate job duties periodically.
Perform an independent audit.
Hire temporary staff.
Implement compensating controls.
The best way to address segregation of duties issues in an organization with budget constraints is to implement compensating controls, which are alternative controls that reduce or eliminate the risk of errors or fraud due to inadequate segregation of duties. Compensating controls may include independent reviews, reconciliations, approvals, or supervisions. Rotating job duties periodically may reduce the risk of collusion or abuse of privileges, but it may also affect operational efficiency and continuity. Performing an independent audit may detect segregation of duties issues, but it does not prevent them. Hiring temporary staff may increase operational costs and introduce new risks. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
Which of the following should be GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system?
Data conversion was performed using manual processes.
Backups of the old system and data are not available online.
Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion.
The change management process was not formally documented
 The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system is unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Unauthorized data modifications are changes or alterations to data that are not authorized, intended, or expected, such as due to errors, fraud, or sabotage. Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion can compromise the accuracy, completeness, and integrity of the data being converted and migrated to the new application system, and may result in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency. The other options are not as concerning as unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion in reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system, as they do not affect the accuracy, completeness, or integrity of the data being converted and migrated. Data conversion was performed using manual processes is a possible factor that may increase the risk or complexity of data conversion and migration, but it does not necessarily imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Backups of the old system and data are not available online is a possible factor that may affect the availability or accessibility of the old system and data for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. The change management process was not formally documented is a possible factor that may affect the quality or consistency of the change management process for implementing the new application system, but it does not imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
Which of the following is the BEST control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an instant messaging (IM) system?
Blocking attachments in IM
Blocking external IM traffic
Allowing only corporate IM solutions
Encrypting IM traffic
Allowing only corporate IM solutions is the best control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an IM system, because it can prevent unauthorized or malicious IM applications from accessing the network and infecting the system with malware. Corporate IM solutions can also enforce security policies and standards, such as encryption, authentication, and logging, to protect the IM system from malware attacks. Blocking attachments in IM, blocking external IM traffic, and encrypting IM traffic are also possible controls to mitigate the malware risk, but they are not as effective as allowing only corporate IM solutions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4
Documentation of workaround processes to keep a business function operational during recovery of IT systems is a core part of a:
business impact analysis (BIA).
threat and risk assessment.
business continuity plan (BCP).
disaster recovery plan (DRP).
 A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. A core part of a BCP is the documentation of workaround processes to keep a business function operational during recovery of IT systems. Workaround processes are alternative methods or procedures that can be used to perform a business function when the normal IT systems are unavailable or disrupted2. For example, if an online payment system is down, a workaround process could be to accept manual payments or use a backup system. Workaround processes help to minimize the impact of IT disruptions on the business operations and ensure continuity of service to customers and stakeholders3.
References:
Which of the following is a social engineering attack method?
An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone.
A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access.
An intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties.
An unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door.
 Social engineering is a technique that exploits human weaknesses, such as trust, curiosity, or greed, to obtain information or access from a target. An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone is an example of a social engineering attack method, as it involves manipulating the employee into divulging sensitive information that can be used to compromise the network or system. A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access, an intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties, and an unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door are not examples of social engineering attack methods, as they do not involve human interaction or deception. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 361.
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when an international organization intends to roll out a global data privacy policy?
Requirements may become unreasonable.
The policy may conflict with existing application requirements.
Local regulations may contradict the policy.
Local management may not accept the policy.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when an international organization intends to roll out a global data privacy policy is that local regulations may contradict the policy. Data privacy regulations vary across different countries and regions, and they may impose different or conflicting requirements on how personal data can be collected, processed, stored, transferred, and disclosed. The organization should ensure that its global data privacy policy complies with the applicable local regulations in each jurisdiction where it operates, or risk facing legal sanctions or reputational damage. Requirements may become unreasonable, but this is not a major concern for an IS auditor, as it is a business decision that should be based on a cost-benefit analysis. The policy may conflict with existing application requirements, but this is not a serious concern for an IS auditor, as it can be resolved by modifying or updating the applications to align with the policy. Local management may not accept the policy, but this is not a critical concern for an IS auditor, as it can be mitigated by providing adequate training and awareness on the policy and its benefits. References:
An organization has recently implemented a Voice-over IP (VoIP) communication system. Which ot the following should be the IS auditor's PRIMARY concern?
A single point of failure for both voice and data communications
Inability to use virtual private networks (VPNs) for internal traffic
Lack of integration of voice and data communications
Voice quality degradation due to packet toss
The IS auditor’s primary concern when an organization has recently implemented a Voice-over IP (VoIP) communication system is a single point of failure for both voice and data communications. VoIP is a technology that allows voice communication over IP networks such as the internet. VoIP can offer benefits such as lower costs, higher flexibility, and better integration with other applications. However, VoIP also introduces risks such as dependency on network availability, performance, and security. If both voice and data communications share the same network infrastructure and devices, then a single point of failure can affect both services simultaneously and cause significant disruption to business operations. Therefore, the IS auditor should evaluate the availability and redundancy of the network components and devices that support VoIP communication. The other options are not as critical as a single point of failure for both voice and data communications, as they do not pose a direct threat to business continuity. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 385
Which of the following would an IS auditor recommend as the MOST effective preventive control to reduce the risk of data leakage?
Ensure that paper documents arc disposed security.
Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS).
Verify that application logs capture any changes made.
Validate that all data files contain digital watermarks
 Digital watermarks are hidden marks or codes that can be embedded into digital files, such as images, videos, audio, or documents. They can be used to identify the source, owner, or authorized user of the data, as well as to track any unauthorized copying or distribution of the data. Digital watermarks can help prevent data leakage by deterring potential leakers from sharing sensitive data or by providing evidence of data leakage if it occurs.
The other options are not as effective as digital watermarks in preventing data leakage. Ensuring that paper documents are disposed securely can reduce the risk of physical data leakage, but it does not address the digital data leakage that is more prevalent in today’s environment. Implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS) can help detect and respond to cyberattacks that may cause data leakage, but it does not prevent data leakage from insiders or authorized users who have legitimate access to the data. Verifying that application logs capture any changes made can help audit and investigate data leakage incidents, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC)?
Have an independent party review the source calculations
Execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library
implement complex password controls
Verify EUC results through manual calculations
The best way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC) is to execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library. This will ensure that the original EUC programs are protected from unauthorized changes and that the copies are run in a controlled environment. A secure library is a repository of EUC programs that have been tested, validated, and approved by the appropriate authority. Executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library can also help with version control, backup, and recovery of EUC programs. Having an independent party review the source calculations, implementing complex password controls, and verifying EUC results through manual calculations are not as effective as executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library, as they do not prevent or detect unintentional modifications of complex calculations in EUC. References: End-User Computing (EUC) Risks: A Comprehensive Guide, End User Computing (EUC) Risk Management
Which of the following audit procedures would be MOST conclusive in evaluating the effectiveness of an e-commerce application system's edit routine?
Review of program documentation
Use of test transactions
Interviews with knowledgeable users
Review of source code
The most conclusive audit procedure for evaluating the effectiveness of an e-commerce application system’s edit routine is to use test transactions. A test transaction is a simulated input that is processed by the system to verify its output and performance1. By using test transactions, an auditor can directly observe how the edit routine checks the validity, accuracy, and completeness of data entered by users, and how it handles incorrect or invalid data. A test transaction can also help measure the efficiency, reliability, and security of the edit routine, as well as identify any errors or weaknesses in the system.
The other options are not as conclusive as using test transactions, as they rely on indirect or secondary sources of information. Reviewing program documentation is an audit procedure that involves examining the written description of the system’s design, specifications, and functionality2. However, program documentation may not reflect the actual implementation or operation of the system, and it may not reveal any discrepancies or defects in the edit routine. Interviews with knowledgeable users is an audit procedure that involves asking questions to the people who use or manage the system3. However, interviews with knowledgeable users may not provide sufficient or objective evidence of the edit routine’s effectiveness, and they may be influenced by personal opinions or biases. Reviewing source code is an audit procedure that involves analyzing the programming language and logic of the system4. However, reviewing source code may not be feasible or practical for complex or large systems, and it may not demonstrate how the edit routine performs in real scenarios.
An IS auditor notes that the previous year's disaster recovery test was not completed within the scheduled time frame due to insufficient hardware allocated by a third-party vendor. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that adequate resources are now allocated to successfully recover the systems?
Service level agreement (SLA)
Hardware change management policy
Vendor memo indicating problem correction
An up-to-date RACI chart
 The best evidence that adequate resources are now allocated to successfully recover the systems is a service level agreement (SLA). An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the scope, quality, and terms of the service delivery. An SLA should include measurable and verifiable indicators of the service performance, such as availability, reliability, capacity, security, and recovery. An SLA should also specify the roles, responsibilities, and expectations of both parties, as well as the remedies and penalties for non-compliance. An SLA can help to ensure that the third-party vendor has allocated sufficient hardware and other resources to meet the recovery objectives and requirements of the organization. References:
Which of the following IT service management activities is MOST likely to help with identifying the root cause of repeated instances of network latency?
Change management
Problem management
incident management
Configuration management
 Problem management is an IT service management activity that is most likely to help with identifying the root cause of repeated instances of network latency. Problem management involves analyzing incidents that affect IT services and finding solutions to prevent them from recurring or minimize their impact. Change management is an IT service management activity that involves controlling and documenting any modifications to IT services or infrastructure. Incident management is an IT service management activity that involves restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident has occurred. Configuration management is an IT service management activity that involves identifying and maintaining records of IT assets and their relationships. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 334
in a controlled application development environment, the MOST important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the:
application programmer
systems programmer
computer operator
quality assurance (QA) personnel
 In a controlled application development environment, the most important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the application programmer. This segregation of duties ensures that no one person can create and deploy code without proper review, testing, and approval. This reduces the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious code being introduced into the production environment.
The other options are not as important as the segregation between the application programmer and the person who implements changes into production, but they are still relevant for achieving a secure and reliable application development environment. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the systems programmer is important to prevent unauthorized or untested changes to system software or configuration. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the computer operator is important to prevent unauthorized or uncontrolled access to production data or resources. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the quality assurance (QA) personnel is important to ensure independent verification and validation of code quality and functionality.
References:
Which of the following would MOST effectively help to reduce the number of repealed incidents in an organization?
Testing incident response plans with a wide range of scenarios
Prioritizing incidents after impact assessment.
Linking incidents to problem management activities
Training incident management teams on current incident trends
Linking incidents to problem management activities would most effectively help to reduce the number of repeated incidents in an organization, because problem management aims to identify and eliminate the root causes of incidents and prevent their recurrence. Testing incident response plans, prioritizing incidents, and training incident management teams are all good practices, but they do not directly address the issue of repeated incidents. References: ISACA ITAF 3rd Edition Section 3600
Which of the following is the BEST way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications?
Limiting access to the data files based on frequency of use
Obtaining formal agreement by users to comply with the data classification policy
Applying access controls determined by the data owner
Using scripted access control lists to prevent unauthorized access to the server
The best way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications is to apply access controls determined by the data owner. The principle of least privilege states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility to classify, label, and protect the data according to its sensitivity and value. The data owner can define the access rights and permissions for each user or role based on the data classification policy and the business needs. This will ensure that only authorized and appropriate users can access the data and prevent unauthorized or excessive access that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data. References:
Which of the following backup schemes is the BEST option when storage media is limited?
Real-time backup
Virtual backup
Differential backup
Full backup
 A differential backup scheme is the best option when storage media is limited, as it only backs up the data that has changed since the last full backup. This reduces the amount of storage space required and also simplifies the restoration process, as only the last full backup and the last differential backup are needed. A real-time backup scheme would require continuous replication of data, which would consume a lot of storage space and network bandwidth. A virtual backup scheme would create a snapshot of the data at a point in time, but it would not reduce the storage space required, as it would still need to store the changes made to the data. A full backup scheme would back up all the data every time, which would require the most storage space and also take longer to complete. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 405
An IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment tor a data center would be MOST concerned if:
some of the identified throats are unlikely to occur.
all identified throats relate to external entities.
the exercise was completed by local management.
neighboring organizations operations have been included.
 An IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center would be most concerned if the exercise was completed by local management, because this could introduce bias, conflict of interest, or lack of expertise in the assessment process. A threat assessment is a systematic method of identifying and evaluating the potential threats that could affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the data center and its assets. A threat assessment should be conducted by an independent and qualified team that has the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to perform a comprehensive and objective analysis of the data center’s environment, vulnerabilities, and risks1.
The other options are not as concerning as option C for an IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center. Option A, some of the identified threats are unlikely to occur, is not a problem as long as the likelihood and impact of each threat are properly estimated and prioritized. A threat assessment should consider all possible scenarios, even if they have a low probability of occurrence, to ensure that the data center is prepared for any eventuality2. Option B, all identified threats relate to external entities, is not a flaw as long as the assessment also considers internal threats, such as human errors, malicious insiders, or equipment failures. External threats are often more visible and severe than internal threats, but they are not the only source of risk for a data center3. Option D, neighboring organizations’ operations have been included, is not a mistake as long as the assessment also focuses on the data center’s own operations. Neighboring organizations’ operations may have an impact on the data center’s security and availability, especially if they share physical or network infrastructure or resources. A threat assessment should take into account the interdependencies and interactions between the data center and its external environment4.
References:
Which of the following security measures will reduce the risk of propagation when a cyberattack occurs?
Perimeter firewall
Data loss prevention (DLP) system
Web application firewall
Network segmentation
Network segmentation is the best security measure to reduce the risk of propagation when a cyberattack occurs, because it divides the network into smaller subnetworks that are isolated from each other and have different access controls and security policies. This limits the spread of malicious traffic and prevents attackers from accessing sensitive data or systems in other segments. A perimeter firewall, a data loss prevention (DLP) system, and a web application firewall are also useful security measures, but they do not prevent propagation within the network as effectively as network segmentation does. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
Which of the following will BEST ensure that a proper cutoff has been established to reinstate transactions and records to their condition just prior to a computer system failure?
Rotating backup copies of transaction files offsite
Using a database management system (DBMS) to dynamically back-out partially processed transactions
Maintaining system console logs in electronic formal
Ensuring bisynchronous capabilities on all transmission lines
 The best way to ensure that a proper cutoff has been established to reinstate transactions and records to their condition just prior to a computer system failure is to use a database management system (DBMS) to dynamically back-out partially processed transactions. A DBMS is a software system that manages the creation, manipulation, retrieval, and security of data stored in a database. A DBMS can provide features such as transaction management, concurrency control, recovery management, and integrity management. A DBMS can dynamically back-out partially processed transactions by using mechanisms such as rollback segments, undo logs, or write-ahead logs. These mechanisms allow the DBMS to restore the database to a consistent state before the failure occurred. References:
If enabled within firewall rules, which of the following services would present the GREATEST risk?
Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP)
Simple object access protocol (SOAP)
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)
File transfer protocol (FTP)
File transfer protocol (FTP) is a service that allows users to transfer files between computers over a network. If enabled within firewall rules, FTP would present the greatest risk, as it can expose sensitive data to unauthorized access, modification, or deletion. FTP does not provide encryption or authentication, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, spoofing, and tampering attacks. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP), simple object access protocol (SOAP), and hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) are also services that can be used to exchange data over a network, but they have more security features than FTP, such as encryption, authentication, or validation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following would be MOST effective to protect information assets in a data center from theft by a vendor?
Monitor and restrict vendor activities
Issues an access card to the vendor.
Conceal data devices and information labels
Restrict use of portable and wireless devices.
 The most effective control to protect information assets in a data center from theft by a vendor is to monitor and restrict vendor activities. A vendor may have legitimate access to the data center for maintenance or support purposes, but they may also have malicious intentions or be compromised by an attacker. By monitoring and restricting vendor activities, the organization can ensure that the vendor only performs authorized tasks and does not access or tamper with sensitive data or equipment. Issuing an access card to the vendor, concealing data devices and information labels, and restricting use of portable and wireless devices are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as monitoring and restricting vendor activities in preventing theft by a vendor. References:
Which of the following would provide an IS auditor with the GREATEST assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives?
Media recycling policy
Media sanitization policy
Media labeling policy
Media shredding policy
Data disposal controls are the measures that ensure that data are securely and permanently erased or destroyed when they are no longer needed or authorized to be retained. Data disposal controls support business strategic objectives by reducing the risk of data breaches, complying with data privacy regulations, optimizing the use of storage resources, and enhancing the reputation and trust of the organization1.
A media sanitization policy is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and standards for sanitizing different types of media that contain sensitive or confidential data. Media sanitization is the process of removing or modifying data on a media device to make it unreadable or unrecoverable by any means. Media sanitization can be achieved by various methods, such as overwriting, degaussing, encryption, or physical destruction2.
A media sanitization policy would provide an IS auditor with the greatest assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives because it demonstrates that the organization has a clear and consistent approach to protect its data from unauthorized access or disclosure throughout the data life cycle. A media sanitization policy also helps the organization to comply with various data privacy regulations, such as the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the US Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), that require proper disposal of personal or sensitive data3.
The other options are not as effective as a media sanitization policy in providing assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives. A media recycling policy is a document that defines the criteria and procedures for reusing media devices that have been sanitized or erased. A media recycling policy can help the organization to save costs and reduce environmental impact, but it does not address how the data are disposed of in the first place4. A media labeling policy is a document that defines the rules and standards for labeling media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media labeling policy can help the organization to identify and classify its data assets, but it does not specify how the data are sanitized or destroyed when they are no longer needed. A media shredding policy is a document that defines the methods and procedures for physically destroying media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media shredding policy can be a part of a media sanitization policy, but it is not sufficient to cover all types of media devices or data disposal scenarios.
References:
An IS auditor has been asked to advise on measures to improve IT governance within the organization. Which at the following is the BEST recommendation?
Implement key performance indicators (KPIs)
Implement annual third-party audits.
Benchmark organizational performance against industry peers.
Require executive management to draft IT strategy
The best recommendation for improving IT governance within the organization is to implement key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that show how effectively the organization is achieving its key business objectives. KPIs can help the organization to monitor and evaluate the performance, efficiency, and alignment of its IT processes and resources with its business goals and strategies1.
The other options are not as effective as implementing KPIs for improving IT governance. Option B, implementing annual third-party audits, is a good practice but may not be sufficient or timely to identify and address the issues or gaps in IT governance. Option C, benchmarking organizational performance against industry peers, is a useful technique but may not reflect the specific needs and expectations of the organization’s stakeholders. Option D, requiring executive management to draft IT strategy, is a necessary step but not enough to ensure that IT governance is implemented and monitored throughout the organization.
What would be an IS auditor's BEST recommendation upon finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization's human resources (HR) system in a foreign country?
Perform background verification checks.
Review third-party audit reports.
Implement change management review.
Conduct a privacy impact analysis.
The best recommendation for an IS auditor when finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization’s HR system in a foreign country is to conduct a privacy impact analysis. A privacy impact analysis is a systematic process that identifies and evaluates the potential risks and impacts of collecting, using, disclosing, and storing personal information. A privacy impact analysis will help the IS auditor to assess the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations of the organization and the service provider regarding the protection of personal information. A privacy impact analysis will also help to identify and mitigate any privacy risks and gaps in the service level agreement. References:
A company has implemented an IT segregation of duties policy. In a role-based environment, which of the following roles may be assigned to an application developer?
IT operator
System administration
Emergency support
Database administration
Segregation of duties (SOD) is a core internal control and an essential component of an effective risk management strategy. SOD emphasizes sharing the responsibilities of key business processes by distributing the discrete functions of these processes to multiple people and departments, helping to reduce the risk of possible errors and fraud1.
SOD is especially important in IT security, where granting excessive system access to one person or group can lead to harmful consequences, such as data breaches, identity theft, or bypassing security controls2. SOD breaks IT-related tasks into four separate function categories: authorization, custody, recordkeeping, and reconciliation1. Ideally, no one person or department holds responsibility in multiple categories.
In a role-based environment, where access privileges are granted based on predefined roles, it is important to ensure that the roles are designed and assigned in a way that supports SOD. For example, the person who develops an application should not also be the one who tests it, deploys it, or maintains it.
Therefore, an application developer should not be assigned the roles of IT operator, system administration, or database administration, as these roles may conflict with their development role and create opportunities for misuse or abuse of the system. The only role that may be assigned to an application developer without violating SOD is emergency support, which is a temporary role that allows the developer to access the system in case of a critical issue that requires immediate resolution3. However, even this role should be granted with caution and monitored closely to ensure compliance with SOD policies.
References:
What Is the BEST method to determine if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending?
Earned value analysis (EVA)
Return on investment (ROI) analysis
Gantt chart
Critical path analysis
The best method to determine if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending is earned value analysis (EVA). EVA is a technique that compares the actual cost, schedule, and scope of a project with the planned or budgeted values. EVA can help to measure the project progress and performance, and identify any variances or deviations from the baseline plan1.
EVA uses three basic values to calculate the project status: planned value (PV), earned value (EV), and actual cost (AC). PV is the amount of work that was expected to be completed by a certain date, according to the project plan. EV is the amount of work that was actually completed by that date, measured in terms of the budgeted cost. AC is the amount of money that was actually spent to complete the work by that date1.
By comparing these values, EVA can determine if the project is on track, ahead, or behind schedule and budget. EVA can also calculate various indicators, such as cost variance (CV), schedule variance (SV), cost performance index (CPI), and schedule performance index (SPI), to quantify the magnitude and direction of the variances. EVA can also forecast the future performance and completion of the project, based on the current trends and assumptions1.
The other options are not as effective as EVA in determining if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending. Option B, return on investment (ROI) analysis, is a technique that evaluates the profitability or efficiency of an investment, by comparing the benefits or revenues with the costs. ROI analysis can help to justify or prioritize a project, but it does not measure the actual progress or performance of the project against the plan2. Option C, Gantt chart, is a tool that displays the tasks, durations, dependencies, and milestones of a project in a graphical format. Gantt chart can help to plan and monitor a project schedule, but it does not show the actual cost or scope of the project3. Option D, critical path analysis, is a technique that identifies the longest sequence of tasks or activities that must be completed on time for the project to finish on schedule. Critical path analysis can help to optimize and control a project schedule, but it does not account for the actual cost or scope of the project4.
References:
Which of the following would BEST detect that a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is occurring?
Customer service complaints
Automated monitoring of logs
Server crashes
Penetration testing
 The best way to detect that a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is occurring is to use automated monitoring of logs. A DDoS attack disrupts the operations of a server, service, or network by flooding it with unwanted Internet traffic2. Automated monitoring of logs can help pinpoint potential DDoS attacks by analyzing network traffic patterns, monitoring traffic spikes or other unusual activity, and alerting administrators or security teams of any anomalies or malicious requests, protocols, or IP blocks3. Automated monitoring of logs can also help identify the source, type, and impact of the DDoS attack, and provide evidence for further investigation or mitigation.
The other options are not as effective as automated monitoring of logs for detecting DDoS attacks. Customer service complaints are an indirect and delayed indicator of a DDoS attack, as they rely on users reporting problems with accessing a website or service. Customer service complaints may also be caused by other factors unrelated to DDoS attacks, such as server errors or network issues. Server crashes are an extreme and undesirable indicator of a DDoS attack, as they indicate that the server has already been overwhelmed by the attack and has stopped functioning. Server crashes may also result in data loss or corruption, service disruption, or reputational damage. Penetration testing is a proactive and preventive measure for assessing the security posture of a system or network, but it does not detect ongoing DDoS attacks. Penetration testing may involve simulating DDoS attacks to test the resilience or vulnerability of a system or network, but it does not monitor real-time traffic or identify actual attackers.
References:
What is the GREATEST concern for an IS auditor reviewing contracts for licensed software that executes a critical business process?
The contract does not contain a right-to-audit clause.
An operational level agreement (OLA) was not negotiated.
Several vendor deliverables missed the commitment date.
Software escrow was not negotiated.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing contracts for licensed software that executes a critical business process is that software escrow was not negotiated. Software escrow is an arrangement where a third-party holds a copy of the source code and documentation of a licensed software in a secure location. The software escrow agreement specifies the conditions under which the licensee can access the escrowed materials, such as in case of bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by the licensor. Software escrow is important for ensuring the continuity and availability of a critical business process that depends on a licensed software. Without software escrow, the licensee may face significant risks and challenges in maintaining, modifying, or recovering the software in case of any disruption or dispute with the licensor. References:
Which of the following BEST facilitates the legal process in the event of an incident?
Right to perform e-discovery
Advice from legal counsel
Preserving the chain of custody
Results of a root cause analysis
The best way to facilitate the legal process in the event of an incident is to preserve the chain of custody of the evidence. The chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed, or modified the evidence, when, where, how, and why. The chain of custody helps to ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in a court of law. The chain of custody also helps to prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of evidence that could compromise the investigation or the prosecution. References:
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the alignment of business and IT?
Lack of chief information officer (CIO) involvement in board meetings
Insufficient IT budget to execute new business projects
Lack of information security involvement in business strategy development
An IT steering committee chaired by the chief information officer (CIO)
 The greatest challenge to the alignment of business and IT is the lack of chief information officer (CIO) involvement in board meetings. The CIO is the senior executive responsible for overseeing the IT strategy, governance, and operations of the organization, and ensuring that they support the business objectives and needs. The CIO should be involved in board meetings to communicate the value and contribution of IT to the organization, to align the IT vision and direction with the business strategy and priorities, and to advocate for the IT resources and investments required to achieve the desired outcomes. The lack of CIO involvement in board meetings can result in a disconnect between business and IT, a loss of trust and confidence in IT, and missed opportunities for innovation and value creation. The other options are not as challenging as the lack of CIO involvement in board meetings, because they either do not affect the strategic alignment of business and IT, or they can be addressed by other means such as collaboration, negotiation, or escalation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1
A warehouse employee of a retail company has been able to conceal the theft of inventory items by entering adjustments of either damaged or lost stock items lo the inventory system. Which control would have BEST prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment?
Separate authorization for input of transactions
Statistical sampling of adjustment transactions
Unscheduled audits of lost stock lines
An edit check for the validity of the inventory transaction
Separate authorization for input of transactions. This control would have best prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment by ensuring that the warehouse employee who handles the inventory items does not have the authority to enter adjustments to the inventory system. This would create a segregation of duties that would reduce the risk of collusion and concealment of theft.
The other options are not as effective as option A in preventing this type of fraud. Option B, statistical sampling of adjustment transactions, is a detective control that may help identify fraudulent transactions after they have occurred, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Option C, unscheduled audits of lost stock lines, is also a detective control that may reveal discrepancies between the physical and recorded inventory, but it does not address the root cause of the fraud. Option D, an edit check for the validity of the inventory transaction, is a preventive control that may help verify the accuracy and completeness of the transaction data, but it does not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent adjustments.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the alignment of IT and business strategy?
Level of stakeholder satisfaction with the scope of planned IT projects
Percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk
Percentage of stat satisfied with their IT-related roles
Frequency of business process capability maturity assessments
The best metric to measure the alignment of IT and business strategy is the percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk. This metric indicates how well the organization identifies and manages the IT risks that could affect its strategic objectives and performance. A high percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk shows that the organization considers IT as an integral part of its business strategy and aligns its IT resources and capabilities with its business needs and goals . References: : CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.2: IT Strategy, page 67 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.2: IT Strategy
During a security audit, an IS auditor is tasked with reviewing log entries obtained from an enterprise intrusion prevention system (IPS). Which type of risk would be associated with the potential for the auditor to miss a sequence of logged events that could indicate an error in the IPS configuration?
Sampling risk
Detection risk
Control risk
Inherent risk
 The type of risk associated with the potential for the auditor to miss a sequence of logged events that could indicate an error in the IPS configuration is detection risk. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor’s procedures will not detect a material misstatement or error that exists in an assertion or a control. Detection risk can be affected by factors such as the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures, the quality and sufficiency of the audit evidence, and the auditor’s professional judgment and competence. Detection risk can be reduced by applying appropriate audit techniques, such as sampling, testing, observation, inquiry, and analysis. References:
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure that electronic evidence collected during a forensic investigation will be admissible in future legal proceedings?
Restricting evidence access to professionally certified forensic investigators
Documenting evidence handling by personnel throughout the forensic investigation
Performing investigative procedures on the original hard drives rather than images of the hard drives
Engaging an independent third party to perform the forensic investigation
The most important factor to ensure that electronic evidence collected during a forensic investigation will be admissible in future legal proceedings is to document evidence handling by personnel throughout the forensic investigation. Documentation is essential to establish the chain of custody, prove the integrity and authenticity of the evidence, and demonstrate compliance with legal and ethical standards. Documentation should include information such as the date, time, location, source, destination, method, purpose, result, and authorization of each action performed on the evidence. Documentation should also include any observations, findings, assumptions, limitations, or exceptions encountered during the investigation. References:
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) solution?
SIEM reporting is customized.
SIEM configuration is reviewed annually
The SIEM is decentralized.
SIEM reporting is ad hoc.
The greatest concern that the IS auditor should have when reviewing an organization’s security information and event management (SIEM) solution is that the SIEM is decentralized. This is because a decentralized SIEM can pose challenges for collecting, correlating, analyzing and reporting on security events and incidents from multiple sources and locations. A decentralized SIEM can also increase the complexity and cost of maintaining and updating the SIEM components, as well as the risk of inconsistent or incomplete security monitoring and response. The IS auditor should recommend that the organization adopts a centralized or hybrid SIEM architecture that can provide a holistic and integrated view of the security posture and activities across the organization. The other findings are not as concerning as a decentralized SIEM, because they can be addressed by implementing best practices and standards for SIEM reporting and configuration. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
An IS auditor has found that a vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. What is the auditor's BEST recommendation for the organization?
Analyze a new application that moots the current re
Perform an analysis to determine the business risk
Bring the escrow version up to date.
Develop a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code
This means that the organization should obtain the source code from the escrow agent and compare it with the current version of the application that they are using. The organization should then identify and apply any changes or updates that are missing or different in the escrow version, so that it matches the current version. This way, the organization can ensure that they have a complete and accurate copy of the source code that reflects their current needs and requirements.
Bringing the escrow version up to date can help the organization to avoid or reduce the risks and costs associated with using an outdated or incompatible version of the source code. For example, an older version of the source code may have bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, security, or performance of the application. An older version of the source code may also lack some features, enhancements, or integrations that could improve the usability, efficiency, or value of the application. An older version of the source code may also not comply with some standards, regulations, or contracts that could affect the quality, reliability, or legality of the application1.
The other options are not as good as bringing the escrow version up to date for the organization. Option A, analyzing a new application that meets the current requirements, is a possible option but it may be more time-consuming, expensive, and risky than updating the existing application. The organization may have to go through a complex and lengthy process of selecting, acquiring, implementing, testing, and migrating to a new application, which could disrupt their operations and performance. The organization may also have to deal with compatibility, interoperability, or data quality issues when switching to a new application2. Option B, performing an analysis to determine the business risk, is a necessary step but not a recommendation for the organization. The organization should already be aware of the business risk of using an application whose vendor has gone out of business and whose escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization should focus on finding and implementing a solution to mitigate or eliminate this risk3. Option D, developing a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code, is not a feasible option because it assumes that the organization has access to the existing code. However, this is not the case because the vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization cannot support or maintain an application without having a complete and accurate copy of its source code.
References:
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to look
for in a project feasibility study?
An assessment of whether requirements will be fully met
An assessment indicating security controls will operate
effectively
An assessment of whether the expected benefits can be
achieved
An assessment indicating the benefits will exceed the implement
 The most important thing for an IS auditor to look for in a project feasibility study is an assessment of whether the expected benefits can be achieved. A project feasibility study is a preliminary analysis that evaluates the viability and suitability of a proposed project based on various criteria, such as technical, economic, legal, operational, and social factors. The expected benefits are the positive outcomes and value that the project aims to deliver to the organization and its stakeholders. The IS auditor should verify whether the project feasibility study has clearly defined and quantified the expected benefits, and whether it has assessed the likelihood and feasibility of achieving them within the project scope, budget, schedule, and quality parameters. The other options are also important for an IS auditor to look for in a project feasibility study, but not as important as an assessment of whether the expected benefits can be achieved, because they either focus on specific aspects of the project rather than the overall value proposition, or they assume that the project will be implemented rather than evaluating its viability. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1
An audit has identified that business units have purchased cloud-based applications without IPs support. What is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?
The applications are not included in business continuity plans (BCFs)
The applications may not reasonably protect data.
The application purchases did not follow procurement policy.
The applications could be modified without advanced notice.
The greatest risk associated with the situation of business units purchasing cloud-based applications without IT support is that the applications may not reasonably protect data. Cloud-based applications are software applications that run on the internet, rather than on a local device or network. Cloud-based applications offer many benefits, such as scalability, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness, but they also pose many challenges and risks, especially for data security1.
Data security is the process of protecting data from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction. Data security is essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, as well as complying with legal and regulatory requirements. Data security is especially important for cloud-based applications, as data are stored and processed on remote servers that are owned and managed by third-party cloud service providers (CSPs)2.
When business units purchase cloud-based applications without IT support, they may not be aware of or follow the best practices and standards for data security in the cloud. They may not perform adequate risk assessments, vendor evaluations, contract reviews, or audits to ensure that the CSPs and the applications meet the organization’s data security policies and expectations. They may not implement appropriate data encryption, backup, recovery, or disposal methods to protect the data in transit and at rest. They may not monitor or control the access and usage of the data by internal or external users. They may not report or respond to any data breaches or incidents that may occur3.
These actions or inactions may expose the organization’s data to various threats and vulnerabilities in the cloud, such as cyberattacks, human errors, malicious insiders, misconfigurations, or legal disputes. These threats and vulnerabilities may result in data loss, leakage, corruption, or compromise, which may have serious consequences for the organization’s reputation, operations, performance, compliance, and liability4.
Therefore, it is essential that business units consult and collaborate with IT support before purchasing any cloud-based applications, and follow the organization’s guidelines and procedures for cloud security. IT support can help business units to select and use cloud-based applications that are suitable and secure for their needs and objectives.
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers. Which of the following findings should the auditor consider MOST critical?
The quality of the data is not monitored.
Imported data is not disposed frequently.
The transfer protocol is not encrypted.
The transfer protocol does not require authentication.
 The most critical finding that the IS auditor should consider when reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers is that the quality of the data is not monitored. This is because market price data is essential for financial transactions, risk management, valuation and reporting, and any errors or inaccuracies in the data can have significant impact on the organization’s performance, reputation and compliance. The IS auditor should ensure that the organization has established quality criteria and controls for the imported data, such as validity, completeness, timeliness, consistency and accuracy, and that the data is regularly checked and verified against these criteria. The other findings are also important, but not as critical as data quality. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.7
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement?
Process and resource inefficiencies
Irregularities and illegal acts
Noncompliance with organizational policies
Misalignment with business objectives
The most significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement is the misalignment with business objectives. This is because IS audit engagements are intended to provide assurance that the IT systems and processes support the achievement of the business objectives and strategies. If there is a misalignment, it could result in wasted resources, missed opportunities, inefficiencies, errors, or failures that could adversely affect the organization’s performance and reputation12. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.3: Audit Risk, page 28 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.3: Audit Risk
Which of the following should be performed FIRST before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented?
Analysis of industry benchmarks
Identification of organizational goals
Analysis of quantitative benefits
Implementation of a balanced scorecard
The first thing that should be performed before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented is the identification of organizational goals. This is because KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives4. Therefore, it is necessary that the organization defines its goals clearly and aligns them with its vision, mission, and strategy. By identifying its goals, the organization can then determine what KPIs are relevant and meaningful to measure its progress and performance . References: 4: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.3: Benefits Realization, page 77 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.3: Benefits Realization : ISACA Journal Volume 1, 2020, Article: How to Measure Anything in IT Governance
An IS auditor finds that capacity management for a key system is being performed by IT with no input from the business The auditor's PRIMARY concern would be:
failure to maximize the use of equipment
unanticipated increase in business s capacity needs.
cost of excessive data center storage capacity
impact to future business project funding.
 The auditor’s primary concern when capacity management for a key system is being performed by IT with no input from the business would be an unanticipated increase in business’s capacity needs. This could result in performance degradation, service disruption or customer dissatisfaction if IT is not able to provide sufficient capacity to meet the business demand. Failure to maximize the use of equipment, cost of excessive data center storage capacity or impact to future business project funding are secondary concerns that relate to resource optimization or budget allocation, but not to service delivery or customer satisfaction. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 374
A post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?
The survey results were not presented in detail lo management.
The survey questions did not address the scope of the business case.
The survey form template did not allow additional feedback to be provided.
The survey was issued to employees a month after implementation.
 The greatest concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users is that the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case. A post-implementation review is a process of evaluating the outcomes and benefits of a project after it has been completed and implemented. A post-implementation review can help to assess whether the project met its objectives, delivered its expected value, and satisfied its stakeholders1. A survey is a method of collecting feedback and opinions from users or other stakeholders about their experience and satisfaction with the project. A survey can help to measure the user acceptance, usability, and functionality of the project deliverables2. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a project based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case defines the scope, objectives, and requirements of the project and provides a basis for its approval and initiation3. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case, as it may indicate that the post-implementation review was not comprehensive, relevant, or aligned with the project goals. The other options are less concerning or incorrect because:
Which of the following would BEST ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster''
Use an electronic vault for incremental backups
Deploy a fully automated backup maintenance system.
Periodically test backups stored in a remote location
Use both tape and disk backup systems
 The best way to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster is to periodically test backups stored in a remote location. Testing backups is essential to verify that the backup copies are valid, complete, and recoverable. Testing backups also helps to identify any issues or errors that may affect the backup process or the restoration of data. Storing backups in a remote location is important to protect the backup copies from physical damage, theft, or unauthorized access that may occur at the primary site. Using an electronic vault for incremental backups, deploying a fully automated backup maintenance system, or using both tape and disk backup systems are not sufficient to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster, as they do not address the need for testing backups or storing them in a remote location. References: Backup and Recovery of Data: The Essential Guide | Veritas, The Truth About Data Backup for Mission-Critical Environments - DATAVERSITY.
Which of the following should an IS auditor expect to see in a network vulnerability assessment?
Misconfiguration and missing updates
Malicious software and spyware
Zero-day vulnerabilities
Security design flaws
 A network vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the network or its resources. A network vulnerability assessment typically involves scanning the network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, and workstations, using automated tools that compare the device configurations, software versions, and patch levels against a database of known vulnerabilities. A network vulnerability assessment can also include manual testing and verification of the network architecture, design, policies, and procedures. One of the main objectives of a network vulnerability assessment is to detect and report any misconfiguration and missing updates in the network devices that could pose a security risk1. Misconfiguration refers to any deviation from the recommended or best practice settings for the network devices, such as weak passwords, open ports, unnecessary services, default accounts, or incorrect permissions. Missing updates refer to any outdated or unsupported software or firmware that has not been patched with the latest security fixes or enhancements from the vendors2. Misconfiguration and missing updates are common sources of network vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute malicious code, cause denial of service, or escalate privileges on the network devices3. Therefore, an IS auditor should expect to see misconfiguration and missing updates in a network vulnerability assessment. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement a data retention policy?
To limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information
To document business objectives for processing data within the organization
To assign responsibility and ownership for data protection outside IT
To establish a recovery point detective (RPO) for (toaster recovery procedures
The best reason to implement a data retention policy is to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information. A data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept by an organization and how they should be disposed of when they are no longer needed. A data retention policy should comply with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the data retention requirements and obligations of organizations, such as tax laws, privacy laws, or industry standards4. Implementing a data retention policy can help to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information by reducing the amount of data that need to be stored and secured, minimizing the risk of data breaches or leaks, ensuring compliance with legal or contractual obligations, and avoiding potential fines or penalties for non-compliance5. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
A review of Internet security disclosed that users have individual user accounts with Internet service providers (ISPs) and use these accounts for downloading business data. The organization wants to ensure that only the corporate network is used. The organization should FIRST:
use a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed.
keep a manual log of Internet access.
monitor remote access activities.
include a statement in its security policy about Internet use.
The first step that the organization should take to ensure that only the corporate network is used for downloading business data is to include a statement in its security policy about Internet use. A security policy is a document that defines the rules, expectations, and overall approach that an organization uses to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its data1. A security policy should clearly state the acceptable and unacceptable use of Internet resources, such as personal accounts with ISPs, and the consequences of violating the policy. A security policy also helps to guide the implementation of technical controls, such as proxy servers, firewalls, or monitoring tools, that can enforce the policy and prevent or detect unauthorized Internet access.
The other options are not the first step that the organization should take, but rather subsequent or complementary steps that depend on the security policy. Using a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed is a technical control that can help implement the security policy, but it does not address the root cause of why users are using personal accounts with ISPs. Keeping a manual log of Internet access is a monitoring technique that can help audit the compliance with the security policy, but it does not prevent or deter users from using personal accounts with ISPs. Monitoring remote access activities is another monitoring technique that can help detect unauthorized Internet access, but it does not specify what constitutes unauthorized access or how to respond to it.
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What is the PRIMARY benefit of an audit approach which requires reported findings to be issued together with related action plans, owners, and target dates?
it facilitates easier audit follow-up
it enforces action plan consensus between auditors and auditees
it establishes accountability for the action plans
it helps to ensure factual accuracy of findings
The primary benefit of an audit approach that requires reported findings to be issued together with related action plans, owners, and target dates is that it establishes accountability for the action plans. Accountability means that the individuals or groups who are responsible for implementing the action plans are clearly identified and held liable for their completion within the specified time frame. Accountability also implies that the action plans are monitored and evaluated to ensure that they are effective and efficient in addressing the audit findings and mitigating the associated risks1. Accountability helps to ensure that the audit recommendations are taken seriously and implemented properly, and that the audit value is realized by the organization2. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
An IS auditor discovers that an IT organization serving several business units assigns equal priority to all initiatives, creating a risk of delays in securing project funding Which of the following would be MOST helpful in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives?
Project management
Risk assessment results
IT governance framework
Portfolio management
The most helpful tool in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives is portfolio management. Portfolio management is the process of selecting, prioritizing, balancing and aligning IT projects and services with the strategic goals and value proposition of the organization3. Portfolio management helps the IT organization to allocate resources efficiently and effectively, to deliver value to the business units, and to align IT initiatives with business strategies. Project management, risk assessment results and IT governance framework are also important tools, but they are not as helpful as portfolio management in matching demand and supply of IT projects and services. References:
The PRIMARY benefit of information asset classification is that it:
prevents loss of assets.
helps to align organizational objectives.
facilitates budgeting accuracy.
enables risk management decisions.
 The primary benefit of information asset classification is that it enables risk management decisions. Information asset classification helps to identify the value, sensitivity and criticality of information assets, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls required for them. This facilitates risk assessment and risk treatment processes, and ensures that information assets are aligned with business objectives and regulatory requirements. Preventing loss of assets, helping to align organizational objectives or facilitating budgeting accuracy are secondary benefits of information asset classification, but not the main purpose. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 300
An IS auditor is reviewing the installation of a new server. The IS auditor's PRIMARY objective is to ensure that
security parameters are set in accordance with the manufacturer s standards.
a detailed business case was formally approved prior to the purchase.
security parameters are set in accordance with the organization's policies.
the procurement project invited lenders from at least three different suppliers.
The primary objective of an IS auditor when reviewing the installation of a new server is to ensure that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies. Security parameters are settings or options that control the security level and behavior of the server, such as authentication methods, encryption algorithms, access rights, audit logs, firewall rules, or password policies7. The organization’s policies are documents that define the security goals, requirements, standards, and guidelines for the organization’s information systems. An IS auditor should verify that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies to ensure that the new server complies with the organization’s security expectations and regulations. The other options are less important or incorrect because:
Which of the following is MOST critical for the effective implementation of IT governance?
Strong risk management practices
Internal auditor commitment
Supportive corporate culture
Documented policies
The most critical factor for the effective implementation of IT governance is a supportive corporate culture. A supportive corporate culture is one that fosters collaboration, communication and commitment among all stakeholders involved in IT governance processes. A supportive corporate culture also promotes a shared vision, values and goals for IT governance across the organization. Strong risk management practices, internal auditor commitment or documented policies are important elements for IT governance implementation, but they are not sufficient without a supportive corporate culture. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 41
A system administrator recently informed the IS auditor about the occurrence of several unsuccessful intrusion attempts from outside the organization. Which of the following is MOST effective in detecting such an intrusion?
Using smart cards with one-time passwords
Periodically reviewing log files
Configuring the router as a firewall
Installing biometrics-based authentication
 Periodically reviewing log files is the most effective way to detect intrusion attempts from outside the organization, as they can provide evidence of unauthorized access attempts, source IP addresses, timestamps and other relevant information. Using smart cards with one-time passwords or installing biometrics-based authentication can prevent unauthorized access, but not detect it. Configuring the router as a firewall can block unwanted traffic, but not log it. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 361
A review of an organization’s IT portfolio revealed several applications that are not in use. The BEST way to prevent this situation from recurring would be to implement.
A formal request for proposal (RFP) process
Business case development procedures
An information asset acquisition policy
Asset life cycle management.
Asset life cycle management is a technique of asset management where facility managers maximize the usable life of assets through planning, purchasing, using, maintaining, and disposing of assets1. The main aim of asset life cycle management is to reduce costs and increase productivity by optimizing the performance, reliability, and lifespan of assets2. Asset life cycle management can help prevent the situation of having unused applications by ensuring that the applications are aligned with the business needs, objectives, and strategies, and that they are regularly reviewed, updated, or retired as necessary3.
The other options are not as effective as asset life cycle management for preventing unused applications. A formal request for proposal (RFP) process is a method of soliciting bids from potential vendors or suppliers for a project or service. A RFP process can help select the best application for a specific requirement, but it does not ensure that the application will be used or maintained throughout its lifecycle. Business case development procedures are a set of steps that involve defining the problem, analyzing the alternatives, and proposing a solution for a project or initiative. Business case development procedures can help justify the need and value of an application, but they do not guarantee that the application will be utilized or supported after its implementation. An information asset acquisition policy is a document that outlines the rules and standards for acquiring information assets such as applications. An information asset acquisition policy can help ensure that the applications are acquired in a consistent and compliant manner, but it does not address how the applications will be managed or disposed of after their acquisition.
Which of the following would be the MOST useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio?
Cost of projects divided by total IT cost
Expected return divided by total project cost
Net present value (NPV) of the portfolio
Total cost of each project
The most useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio is the net present value (NPV) of the portfolio. NPV is a measure of the profitability and value of a project or a portfolio of projects, taking into account the time value of money and the expected cash flows. NPV compares the present value of the future cash inflows with the present value of the initial investment and shows how much value is created or lost by undertaking a project or a portfolio of projects1. A positive NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth more than its cost and will generate a positive return on investment. A negative NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth less than its cost and will result in a loss. Therefore, NPV helps management to prioritize and select the most profitable and valuable projects or portfolios that align with the organizational strategy and objectives2. The other options are less useful or incorrect because:
Which of the following is MOST important when implementing a data classification program?
Understanding the data classification levels
Formalizing data ownership
Developing a privacy policy
Planning for secure storage capacity
 Data classification is the process of organizing data into categories based on its sensitivity, value, and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to ensure that data is protected according to its importance and regulatory requirements. Data classification also enables data owners to make informed decisions about data access, retention, and disposal.
To implement a data classification program, it is most important to formalize data ownership. Data owners are the individuals or business units that have the authority and responsibility for the data they create or use. Data owners should be involved in defining the data classification levels, assigning the appropriate classification to their data, and ensuring that the data is handled according to the established policies and procedures. Data owners should also review and update the data classification periodically or when there are changes in the data or its usage.
The other options are not as important as formalizing data ownership when implementing a data classification program. Understanding the data classification levels is necessary, but it is not sufficient without identifying the data owners who will apply them. Developing a privacy policy is a good practice, but it is not specific to data classification. Planning for secure storage capacity is a technical consideration, but it does not address the business and legal aspects of data classification.
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An IS auditor follows up on a recent security incident and finds the incident response was not adequate. Which of the following findings should be considered MOST critical?
The security weakness facilitating the attack was not identified.
The attack was not automatically blocked by the intrusion detection system (IDS).
The attack could not be traced back to the originating person.
Appropriate response documentation was not maintained.
 The most critical finding for an IS auditor following up on a recent security incident is that the security weakness facilitating the attack was not identified. This finding indicates that the root cause of the incident was not analyzed, and the vulnerability that allowed the attack to succeed was not remediated. This means that the organization is still exposed to the same or similar attacks in the future, and its security posture has not improved. Identifying and addressing the security weakness is a key step in the incident response process, as it helps to prevent recurrence, mitigate impact, and improve resilience.
The other findings are not as critical as the failure to identify the security weakness, but they are still important issues that should be addressed by the organization. The attack was not automatically blocked by the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a finding that suggests that the IDS was not configured properly, or that it did not have the latest signatures or rules to detect and prevent the attack. The attack could not be traced back to the originating person is a finding that implies that the organization did not have sufficient logging, monitoring, or forensic capabilities to identify and attribute the attacker. Appropriate response documentation was not maintained is a finding that indicates that the organization did not follow a consistent and formal incident response procedure, or that it did not document its actions, decisions, and lessons learned from the incident.
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The PRIMARY role of a control self-assessment (CSA) facilitator is to:
conduct interviews to gain background information.
focus the team on internal controls.
report on the internal control weaknesses.
provide solutions for control weaknesses.
The primary role of a control self-assessment (CSA) facilitator is to focus the team on internal controls. A CSA facilitator is a person who guides the CSA process and helps the participants to identify, assess, and improve their internal controls. The facilitator does not conduct interviews, report on weaknesses, or provide solutions, as these are the responsibilities of the participants themselves1.
The other options are incorrect because they are not the primary role of a CSA facilitator. Option A, conduct interviews to gain background information, is a preliminary step that may be done by the facilitator or the participants before the CSA session, but it is not the main purpose of the facilitator. Option C, report on the internal control weaknesses, is an outcome of the CSA process that should be done by the participants who own and operate the controls. Option D, provide solutions for control weaknesses, is also an outcome of the CSA process that should be done by the participants who are in charge of implementing the improvements.
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An externally facing system containing sensitive data is configured such that users have either read-only or administrator rights. Most users of the system have administrator access. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?
Users can export application logs.
Users can view sensitive data.
Users can make unauthorized changes.
Users can install open-licensed software.
The greatest risk associated with having most users with administrator access to an externally facing system containing sensitive data is that users can make unauthorized changes to the system or the data, which could compromise the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the system and the data. Users can export application logs, view sensitive data, and install open-licensed software are also risks, but they are not as severe as unauthorized changes. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 4
Which task should an IS auditor complete FIRST during the preliminary planning phase of a database security review?
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
Determine which databases will be in scope.
Identify the most critical database controls.
Evaluate the types of databases being used
The first task that an IS auditor should complete during the preliminary planning phase of a database security review is to determine which databases will be in scope. The scope defines the boundaries and objectives of the audit, as well as the resources, time, and budget required. The IS auditor should identify the databases that are relevant to the audit based on factors such as their criticality, risk, complexity, size, type, location, and ownership. The IS auditor should also consider the regulatory, contractual, and organizational requirements that apply to the databases. By defining the scope clearly and accurately, the IS auditor can ensure that the audit is focused, feasible, and effective. References: