220-1202 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In the context of artificial intelligence, "hallucinations" refer to instances where an AI system generates information that is plausible-sounding but factually incorrect or entirely fabricated. This is a known limitation of large language models, including generative AI tools.

A. Data privacy refers to the protection of personal or sensitive data, not content accuracy.

C. Appropriate use relates to ethical and policy-based concerns, not factual correctness.

D. Plagiarism involves presenting someone else's work as your own — this situation is about accuracy, not ownership.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is used to control, monitor, and enforce policies on mobile devices. It allows IT teams to restrict app installations, push approved apps, and monitor device compliance. Deploying MDM would prevent unauthorized applications, such as password crackers, from being installed on company-managed devices.

A. Group Policy is for managing Windows environments and not applicable to smartphones.

B. PAM (Privileged Access Management) controls administrative access, not app installation.

C. Anti-malware can help detect malicious apps but doesn’t prevent their installation proactively.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) define the mandatory steps and expectations technicians must follow during support calls. This includes documentation standards such as logging user info, asset details, and issue descriptions in the ticketing system. Implementing SOPs ensures consistency and accountability.

A. SLAs define response/resolution times but not documentation practices.

B. Call categories organize types of issues but don't guide technician actions.

D. Knowledge base articles provide solutions to known problems but don't ensure proper ticket documentation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Outdated images and website data often result from cached files in the browser. The Internet Options panel in Windows (specifically under the General tab) allows users to clear browsing history, including cached images and files, which forces the browser to load the most current versions of web content.

A. Administrative Tools is used for advanced system management, not browser settings.

B. Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic and security rules, not caching.

D. Ease of Access provides accessibility features for users with disabilities — unrelated to web browsing issues.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

User offboarding involves disabling the departing user's access to company systems and facilities. Two key tasks typically include:

Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).

Suspending or disabling the user’s email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).

A. Quarantining a hard drive is not standard unless malware or legal issues are involved.

C. Purging PII must follow legal retention policies; it's not typically an immediate offboarding task.

E. Disabling network ports may be relevant in some cases but is not a standard offboarding step.

F. Blocking MAC addresses is not typical unless the device is considered a security threat.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The first step in the IT change management process is to identify and propose the change. In this case, the technician notices a need (end-of-life network switches), so the appropriate action is toformally propose a change. This proposal would be documented and submitted for approval before any planning or implementation occurs.

According to the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 objectives under Operational Procedures (Domain 4.0), the change management process follows these typical steps:

Submit a change request (Propose the change)

Review and approval (Approve the change)

Planning and scheduling (Schedule the change)

Implementation

Documentation and review

Therefore, proposing the change is the correct first step in accordance with standard ITIL-based change management practices.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.

A. Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.

B. Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.

C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don't necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.

A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user’s home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers. Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.

A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user’s home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers. Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.