220-1202 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.

A. Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.

B. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.

D. Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

BitLocker To Go is a Microsoft encryption feature specifically designed for removable drives such as USB flash drives and external hard drives. It allows users to protect the data on these devices by requiring a password to decrypt the contents, thereby preventing unauthorized access in the event the device is lost or stolen.

A is correct because BitLocker To Go is directly tied to password-protecting removable media.

B and C are unrelated to BitLocker To Go; Secure Boot and VPN encryption are entirely different security layers.

D applies to BitLocker (not BitLocker To Go) and full disk encryption on internal drives using TPM.

The correct answer is A. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) , because DLP solutions are specifically designed to detect, monitor, and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data outside an organization. Information exfiltration occurs when confidential data is improperly transferred, leaked, or stolen, either intentionally or accidentally.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , DLP technologies enforce policies that restrict how data can be shared via email, cloud services, removable media, or network transfers. DLP systems can block, quarantine, or alert administrators when sensitive data patterns—such as credit card numbers or personal identifiers—are detected leaving the organization.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DLP focuses on data protection , not user authentication or device management. While IAM controls access to resources and MDM manages mobile devices, neither directly prevents data from being exfiltrated once access is granted.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that SAML is an authentication framework and does not monitor data movement.

Because the question specifically addresses information exfiltration , the security control designed to prevent it is Data Loss Prevention , making A the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) because SOPs are specifically designed to document roles, responsibilities, workflows, and support expectations for systems and applications within an organization. When deploying a new application, clear documentation is essential to ensure consistent support, escalation, maintenance, and troubleshooting.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide defines SOPs as formal documents that outline who performs specific tasks, how tasks are performed, and when escalation is required . SOPs are commonly used by IT departments to standardize support processes and ensure continuity, especially when multiple technicians or teams are involved.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SOPs are a key component of operational maturity , ensuring that support staff understand their responsibilities and follow approved procedures when responding to incidents or service requests related to an application.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that documents such as NDAs focus on confidentiality, EULAs define usage rights for end users, and DRM is a technical mechanism—not a documentation framework. None of those options describe internal support roles.

Because the scenario explicitly mentions documenting roles and responsibilities , the correct and intended document type is a Standard Operating Procedure , making A the correct answer.

Among the options, threat (end-user) education most directly addresses both preventing malware installation and preventing accidental disclosure of sensitive information, because it changes user behavior—the number one target of many attacks. Quentin Docter emphasizes: “ By far the best prevention of security threats is the education of your end users regarding common threats ,” explaining that the most effective method is teaching users not to open suspicious files and to open only those they’re reasonably sure are malware-free. Docter adds that trained users can better identify Trojans and phishing scams and should also learn guidelines for protecting sensitive information and recognizing social engineering threats.

Docter also states clearly that even when antimalware tools exist, “ user education is much more effective ” in preventing certain notification-based and trick-based malware installs. While Secure Boot, firewalls, and email gateways are valuable technical controls, they don’t cover the broad human-risk dimension of both malware installs and sensitive data disclosure as effectively as education/training. Hence B is correct.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

One of the most common causes for performance degradation on smartphones isstorage or memory overloaddue to excessive apps.Uninstalling unused appsis a basic but effective first diagnostic step.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Start troubleshooting sluggish smartphones by clearing unused apps and files before performing advanced diagnostics or resets.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the user ' s files and demands a payment (ransom) for the decryption key. When a user receives a message stating that their files are encrypted and cannot be accessed, ransomware is the most likely cause. The attacker’s goal is to hold the data hostage until the victim pays to restore access.

A. Keylogger records keystrokes and doesn’t encrypt files.

C. Phishing is a social engineering tactic to gather credentials, not to encrypt data.

D. Cryptominer uses system resources to mine cryptocurrency, not encrypt files.

SSH (Secure Shell) allows encrypted console sessions to access and administer remote servers.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide :

“Secure Shell (SSH) provides an encrypted console session to manage Linux, UNIX, or network devices securely over TCP port 22.” .