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CAMS Exam Dumps - Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)

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Question # 33

How should national and sectoral risk assessments influence an organization’s risk-based approach and internal risk assessment?

A.

They should be referenced and integrated appropriately into an organization’s risk assessment to tailor enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures and allocate resources effectively

B.

They provide general guidance but do not need to be directly considered because internal risk factors are more important

C.

They should only be referenced for high-risk clients as they are designed for worst-case scenarios

D.

They are primarily intended for regulators and should not influence organizational risk assessments

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Question # 34

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Choose three.)

A.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

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Question # 35

A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.

Which category of predicate crime is taking place?

A.

Trade-based money laundering

B.

Corruption

C.

Illicit resource trade

D.

Environmental crime

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Question # 36

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

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Question # 37

A deficiency in the design of a bank’s AML/CFT compliance program could result in placing individual accountability on which part of the regulated entity? (Select Two.)

A.

The compliance department

B.

Board of directors

C.

Product oversight committee

D.

Senior management

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Question # 38

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Question # 39

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

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Question # 40

The key strengths of public-private partnerships (PPP) in anti-financial crime efforts include: (Select Two.)

A.

Improving the speed of action in identifying and mitigating financial crime risks

B.

Enhancing information-sharing capabilities between governments and financial institutions

C.

Providing a legal framework for financial institutions to avoid liability when sharing information

D.

Eliminating the need for organizations to conduct their own due diligence

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