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2016-FRR Exam Dumps - Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series

Question # 4

Which one of the following four statements correctly identifies disadvantages of using the economic capital?

A.

The economic capital models used by banks may be subject to significant model risk.

B.

Economic capital may do not take into consideration the regulatory requirements.

C.

Since banks are putting their money at risk they have an incentive to increase economic capital.

D.

Economic capital estimates the level of expected losses.

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Question # 5

What are the add-on losses faced by a bank that is going bankrupt?

I. The discount accepted by the bank for selling its assets in a fire sale.

II. The increased cost of funding liabilities in a financially distressed situation.

III. The reduction in the present value of future growth opportunities.

IV. Loss of goodwill and intangible assets.

A.

I, II

B.

II, III, IV

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV.

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Question # 6

Which of the following bank events could stress the bank's liquidity position?

I. Obligations to fund assets like mortgages

II. Unusually large depositor withdrawals

III. Counterparty collateral calls

IV. Nonperforming assets

A.

I, II

B.

IV

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, III and IV

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Question # 7

According to the principles of the Basel II Accord, the implementation and relative weights of the elements of the operational risk framework depend on:

I. The culture of the financial institution

II. Regulatory drivers

III. Business drivers

IV. The bank's reporting currency

A.

I, IV

B.

II, III

C.

II, IV

D.

I, II, III

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Question # 8

Operational risk team for a large international bank is implementing business continuity planning (BCP). Which of the following BCP activities fall within the definition of operational risk and represent Basel II Accord's operational risk categories:

I. Damage to Physical Assets

II. Business Disruption and System Failures

III. Social Distancing Requirements

IV. Potential for Extreme Losses

A.

I and II

B.

III

C.

I and IV

D.

III and IV

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Question # 9

A risk associate responsible for the operational risk function wants to evaluate the upward reporting governance structure and to assess its critical features. Which one of the four attributes does not represent a critical feature of the upward reporting governance structure?

A.

Independence

B.

Importance

C.

Relevance

D.

Security

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Question # 10

Which one of the following four metrics represents the difference between the expected loss and unexpected loss on a credit portfolio?

A.

Credit VaR

B.

Probability of default

C.

Loss given default

D.

Modified duration

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Question # 11

As DeltaBank explores the securitization business, it is most likely to embrace securitization to:

I. Bring transparency to the bank's balance sheet

II. Create a new profit center for the bank

III. Strategically release risk capital and regulatory capital for redeployment

IV. Generate cash for additional debt origination

A.

I, III

B.

II, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 12

In the United States, foreign exchange derivative transactions typically occur between

A.

A few large internationally active banks, where the risks become concentrated.

B.

All banks with international branches, where the risks become widely distributed based on trading exposures.

C.

Regional banks with international operations, where the risks depend on the specific derivative transactions.

D.

Thrifts and large commercial banks, where the risks become isolated.

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Question # 13

Counterparty credit risk assessment differs from traditional credit risk assessment in all of the following features EXCEPT:

A.

Exposures can often be netted

B.

Exposure at default may be negatively correlated to the probability of default

C.

Counterparty risk creates a two-way credit exposure

D.

Collateral arrangements are typically static in nature

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Question # 14

Changes to which one of the following four factors would typically not increase the cost of credit?

A.

Increasing inflation rates in a country.

B.

Increase in consumption of goods and services.

C.

Higher risk premium on a fixed income instrument.

D.

Higher return earned on alternative investments.

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Question # 15

Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan is collateralized with $55,000. The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank's exposure at default (EAD) be?

A.

$25,000

B.

$50,000

C.

$75,000

D.

$105,000

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Question # 16

Which of the following risk types are historically associated with credit derivatives?

I. Documentation risk

II. Definition of credit events

III. Occurrence of credit events

IV. Enterprise risk

A.

I, IV

B.

I, II

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 17

Which one of the following four mathematical option pricing models is used most widely for pricing European options?

A.

The Black model

B.

The Black-Scholes model

C.

The Garman-Kohlhagen model

D.

The Heston model

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Question # 18

Most loans and deposits in the interbank market have a maturity of:

A.

More than 10 years

B.

More than 5 years but less than 10 years

C.

More than 3 years but less than 5 years

D.

Less than one year

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Question # 19

To safeguard its capital and obtain insurance if the borrowers cannot repay their loans, Gamma Bank accepts financial collateral to manage its credit risk and mitigate the effect of the borrowers' defaults. Gamma Bank will typically accept all of the following instruments as financial collateral EXCEPT?

A.

Unrated bonds issued and traded on a recognized exchange

B.

Equities and convertible bonds included in a main market index

C.

Commercial debts owed to a company in a form of receivables

D.

Mutual fund shares and similar unit investment vehicles subject to daily quotes

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Question # 20

The potential failure of a manufacturer to honor a warranty might be called ____, whereas the potential failure of a borrower to fulfill its payment requirements, which include both the repayment of the amount borrowed, the principal and the contractual interest payments, would be called ___.

A.

Credit risk; market risk

B.

Market risk; credit risk

C.

Credit risk; performance risk

D.

Performance risk; credit risk

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Question # 21

A credit analyst wants to determine a good pricing strategy to compensate for credit decisions that might have been made incorrectly. When analyzing her credit portfolio, the analyst focuses on the spreads in each loan to determine if they are sufficient to compensate the bank for all of the following costs and risks EXCEPT.

A.

The marginal cost of funds provided.

B.

The overhead cost of maintaining the loan and the account.

C.

The inherent risk of lending to this borrower while providing a return on the risk capital used to the support the loan.

D.

The opportunity cost of risk-adjusted marginal cost of capital.

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Question # 22

A bank customer chooses a mortgage with low initial payments and payments that increase over time because the customer knows that she will have trouble making payments in the early years of the loan. The bank makes this type of mortgage with the same default assumptions uses for ordinary mortgages, thus underestimating the risk of default and becoming exposed to:

A.

Moral hazard

B.

Adverse selection

C.

Banking speculation

D.

Sampling bias

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Question # 23

Which one of the following four option types has two strike prices?

A.

Asian options

B.

American options

C.

Range options

D.

Shout options

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Question # 24

Which one of the following statements about futures contracts is correct?

I. Futures contracts are subject to the same risks as the underlying instruments.

II. Futures contracts have additional interest rate risk die to the future delivery date.

III. Futures contracts traded in a clearinghouse system are exposed to credit risk with numerous counterparties.

A.

I

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

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Question # 25

Which one of the four following statements about back testing the VaR models is correct?

Back testing requires

A.

Plotting VaR forecasts against the proportion of daily losses exceeding the average loss.

B.

Comparing the predictive ability of VaR on a daily basis to the realized daily profits and losses.

C.

Plotting the daily profit and losses along with the ranges predicted by VaR models

D.

Determining the proportion of daily profits exceeding those predicted by VaR.

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Question # 26

When trading exotic options, one needs to consider the following risks:

I. Spot foreign exchange risks

II. Forward foreign exchange risks

III. Plain vanilla options risks

IV. Option-specific risks

A.

I, III

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Question # 27

In analyzing market option pricing dynamics, a risk manager evaluates option value changes throughout the entire trading day. Which of the following factors would most likely affect foreign exchange option values?

I. Change in the value of the underlying

II. Change in the perception of future volatility

III. Change in interest rates

IV. Passage of time

A.

I, II

B.

I, II, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Question # 28

Which one of the following four statements regarding floating rate bonds is incorrect?

A.

Floating rate bonds have coupon payments tied to floating interest rates or floating interest rate indexes.

B.

Floating rate bonds typically have less price risk than fixed rate bonds.

C.

Floating rate bonds are very sensitive to changes in interest rates.

D.

Floating rate bonds only have a small degree of interest rate risk.

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Question # 29

Which one of the following statements is an advantage of using implied volatility as an input when calculating VaR?

A.

Implied volatility assumes volatilities are constant which makes it easy to implement in models.

B.

Current market data is used to determine implied volatilities, which makes them forward looking measures

C.

Implied volatilities are better at predicting actual volatilities

D.

Loss probabilities from the standard normal distribution are used to compute implied volatilities, which makes it easy to compute the.

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Question # 30

Since most consumers of natural gas do not have the ability to store it, they contract with gas suppliers to receive a flow of natural gas equal to a specific number of MMBT's per day (MMBT is millions of British Termal Units, the unit in which gas futures are quoted on the U.S. markets). To protect against price increases with a bank, the natural gas consumer, concerned with the average price over the course of the month, will use the following contracts:

A.

American options

B.

Asian options

C.

Compound options

D.

Flexible volume options

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Question # 31

An endowment asset manager with a focus on long/short equity strategies is evaluating the risks of an equity portfolio. Which of the following risk types does the asset manager need to consider when evaluating her diversified equity portfolio?

I. Company-specific projected earnings and earnings risk

II. Aggregate earnings expectations

III. Market liquidity

IV. Individual asset volatility

A.

I

B.

I, IV

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, IV

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Question # 32

Which one of the following four statements regarding commodity exchanges is INCORRECT?

A.

Banks have no natural direct exposure to commodities.

B.

Banks trade in OTC contracts primarily to serve clients and facilitate client hedging and lending.

C.

Customers rarely trade physical commodities with banks.

D.

Commodity markets are mot liquid than debt markets.

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Question # 33

Which of the following measure describes the symmetry of a statistical distribution?

A.

Mean

B.

Standard deviation

C.

Skewness

D.

Kurtosis

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Question # 34

Which one of the following four statements best describes challenges of delta-normal method of mapping options positions?

Delta-normal method understates

A.

Risks of long and short positions for both calls and puts.

B.

Risks of long option positions for puts and overstates risks of short option positions for calls.

C.

Risks of long option positions for calls and overstates risks of short option positions for puts.

D.

Risks of short option positions and overstates risks of long option positions for both calls and puts.

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Question # 35

To estimate the responsiveness of a particular equity portfolio to the overall market, a trader should use the portfolio's

A.

Alpha

B.

Beta

C.

CVaR

D.

VaR

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Question # 36

A portfolio manager is interested in computing risk measures for his bond investment portfolio. Which of the following measures the sensitivity of duration to interest rates?

A.

Modified duration.

B.

Yield curve

C.

Convexity.

D.

Credit spread.

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Question # 37

Which one of the following statements describes Macauley's duration?

A.

The change in value of a bond when yields increase by 1 basis point.

B.

The weighted average life of the bond payments.

C.

The present value of the future cash flows of a bond calculated at a yield equal to 1%.

D.

The percentage change in a bond price when the yields change by 1%.

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Question # 38

Oliver McCarthy owns a portfolio of bonds. Which of the following choices equals the modified duration of Oliver's portfolio?

A.

Minimum of the modified durations of the component bonds

B.

Value-weighted average modified duration of the component bonds

C.

Coupon-weighted average modified duration of the component bonds

D.

Maximum of the modified durations of component bonds

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Question # 39

Which one of the following four statements regarding commodity derivative risks is INCORRECT?

A.

Because of the different demand/supply balance in each region and the cost of transporting the oil between regions, a tanker of Brent crude oil in the UK will have a different value to a UK buyer than a tanker of Arab light crude oil in Singapore, which results in the basis risk.

B.

Calendar spreads represent a special case of basis risk and occur when the relative prices of commodity futures do not come in alignment and the trader becomes exposed to the absolute price movements.

C.

In most commodities, the longest term contracts are the most volatile, while the shortest term forward contract are the least volatile.

D.

Some commodities can be both in backwardation and a have a strong seasonal element.

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Question # 40

In analyzing the historical performance of a financial product, you are concerned about "fat tails", the probability of extreme returns compared to realized returns. Which of the following measures should you use to determine if the product return distribution of the product has "fat tails"?

A.

Mean

B.

Standard deviation

C.

Skewness

D.

Kurtosis

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Question # 41

Which one of the following four attributes would likely help a trader using exchange-traded options to establish a leveraged position?

A.

Higher degrees of exposure at less cash cost

B.

Unlimited losses for long option positions

C.

Option positions have the same credit risks as a margined long forward.

D.

Option positions have the same cash risks as a margined short futures purchase.

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Question # 42

Which of the following statements describes correctly the objectives of position mapping ?

A.

For VaR calculations, mapping converts positions based on their deltas to underlying factor risks.

B.

Position mapping models risk factors affecting the value of a position as combination of core risk factors used in the VaR calculations.

C.

Position mapping groups similar positions into one group based on the closeness of their respective VaR.

D.

Position mapping reduces the possible number of risk factors to a computationally manageable level.

E.

I and II

F.

II and IV

G.

I, II and III

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Question # 43

Which one of the following four exercise features is typical for the most exchange-traded equity options?

A.

Asian exercise feature

B.

American exercise feature

C.

European exercise feature

D.

A shout option exercise feature

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Question # 44

The exercise for an American type option prior to expiration day is virtually certain in the following case:

A.

In the event of a high dividend for an in-the-money call option

B.

In the event of a high dividend for an in-the-money put option

C.

In the event of a low dividend for an in-the-money call option

D.

In the event of a low dividend for an in-the-money put option

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Question # 45

The operational risk policy should include:

I. The firm's definition of risk

II. The governance of operational risk including who owns it, what it owns, and how issues should be escalated

III. The main activities and elements that are managed by the operational risk function

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

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Question # 46

Which of the following statements explain how securitization makes the retail assets highly liquid and the balance sheet easier to manage?

I. By securitizing assets any lack of capital can be accommodated by selling the securitized bonds.

II. Any need to diversify credit risk can be achieved by selling bank's own securitized bonds and buying other bonds that increase diversification.

III. Securitization could be used to promote hedging by using limited market instruments.

A.

I, II

B.

I, II, III

C.

II, III

D.

II

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Question # 47

Which one of the four following non-statistical risk measures are typically not used to quantify market risk?

A.

Option sensitivities

B.

Net closed positions

C.

Convexity

D.

Basis point values

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Question # 48

Which one of the following four statements correctly identifies the Basel II Accord's definition of operational risk?

A.

Operational risk is all the risk that is not captured by market and credit risks.

B.

Operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed processes, people and systems or from external events.

C.

Operational risk is a risk arising from execution of a company's business functions.

D.

Operational risk is a form of risk that summarizes the risks a company or firm undertakes when it attempts to operate within a given field or industry.

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Question # 49

Which of the following statements about implementation of a successful RCSA program is correct?

A.

An RCSA is only complete after all possible mitigating actions have been identified and analyzed as a result of the assessment process.

B.

Internal loss data help to identify the risks and control weaknesses that need to be addressed in the RCSA; external events are not helpful in informing the discussions around potential risks.

C.

The RCSA scoring methodology should include only financial impacts and not include reputational, legal, regulatory, client and life safety impacts.

D.

To ensure that the RCSA is well designed, it is important to interview participants, stakeholders and support functions prior to the launching the RCSA.

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Question # 50

US based Alpha Bank holds European corporate bonds and US inflation–indexed Treasury notes in its investment portfolio. This investment portfolio is not exposed to changes in which of the following?

A.

Foreign exchange rates

B.

Credit spread on the corporate bonds

C.

Equity values

D.

European interest rates

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Question # 51

What is the role of market risk management function within a bank?

I. Control and minimize the risks the bank should take.

II. Establish a comprehensive market risk policy framework.

III. Define, approve and monitor risk limits.

IV. Perform stress tests and other qualitative risk assessments.

A.

I and III

B.

II and IV

C.

I, II and III

D.

II, III, and IV

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