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SSCP Exam Dumps - Systems Security Certified Practitioner

Question # 4

What is the primary role of cross certification?

A.

Creating trust between different PKIs

B.

Build an overall PKI hierarchy

C.

set up direct trust to a second root CA

D.

Prevent the nullification of user certificates by CA certificate revocation

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Question # 5

What uses a key of the same length as the message where each bit or character from the plaintext is encrypted by a modular addition?

A.

Running key cipher

B.

One-time pad

C.

Steganography

D.

Cipher block chaining

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Question # 6

Which of the following can best be defined as a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of some plaintext-ciphertext pairs?

A.

A known-plaintext attack

B.

A known-algorithm attack

C.

A chosen-ciphertext attack

D.

A chosen-plaintext attack

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Question # 7

Which of the following concerning the Rijndael block cipher algorithm is false?

A.

The design of Rijndael was strongly influenced by the design of the block cipher Square.

B.

A total of 25 combinations of key length and block length are possible

C.

Both block size and key length can be extended to multiples of 64 bits.

D.

The cipher has a variable block length and key length.

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Question # 8

Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?

A.

Public Key cryptography.

B.

Secret Key cryptography.

C.

El Gamal cryptography.

D.

Blowfish cryptography.

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Question # 9

Which of the following terms can be described as the process to conceal data into another file or media in a practice known as security through obscurity?

A.

Steganography

B.

ADS - Alternate Data Streams

C.

Encryption

D.

NTFS ADS

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Question # 10

What attribute is included in a X.509-certificate?

A.

Distinguished name of the subject

B.

Telephone number of the department

C.

secret key of the issuing CA

D.

the key pair of the certificate holder

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Question # 11

A one-way hash provides which of the following?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Integrity

D.

Authentication

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Question # 12

Which of the following cryptographic attacks describes when the attacker has a copy of the plaintext and the corresponding ciphertext?

A.

known plaintext

B.

brute force

C.

ciphertext only

D.

chosen plaintext

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Question # 13

Which of the following protects Kerberos against replay attacks?

A.

Tokens

B.

Passwords

C.

Cryptography

D.

Time stamps

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Question # 14

Which is NOT a suitable method for distributing certificate revocation information?

A.

CA revocation mailing list

B.

Delta CRL

C.

OCSP (online certificate status protocol)

D.

Distribution point CRL

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Question # 15

Which type of attack is based on the probability of two different messages using the same hash function producing a common message digest?

A.

Differential cryptanalysis

B.

Differential linear cryptanalysis

C.

Birthday attack

D.

Statistical attack

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Question # 16

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

A.

RSA

B.

Elliptic Curve

C.

RC5

D.

El Gamal

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Question # 17

A code, as is pertains to cryptography:

A.

Is a generic term for encryption.

B.

Is specific to substitution ciphers.

C.

Deals with linguistic units.

D.

Is specific to transposition ciphers.

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Question # 18

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses a Message Authentication Code (MAC) for what purpose?

A.

message non-repudiation.

B.

message confidentiality.

C.

message interleave checking.

D.

message integrity.

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Question # 19

Which of the following does NOT concern itself with key management?

A.

Internet Security Association Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)

B.

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

C.

Cryptology (CRYPTO)

D.

Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA)

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Question # 20

Which of the following statements pertaining to key management is incorrect?

A.

The more a key is used, the shorter its lifetime should be.

B.

When not using the full keyspace, the key should be extremely random.

C.

Keys should be backed up or escrowed in case of emergencies.

D.

A key's lifetime should correspond with the sensitivity of the data it is protecting.

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Question # 21

Which of the following statements pertaining to message digests is incorrect?

A.

The original file cannot be created from the message digest.

B.

Two different files should not have the same message digest.

C.

The message digest should be calculated using at least 128 bytes of the file.

D.

Messages digests are usually of fixed size.

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Question # 22

As a result of a risk assessment, your security manager has determined that your organization needs to implement an intrusion detection system that can detect unknown attacks and can watch for unusual traffic behavior, such as a new service appearing on the network. What type of intrusion detection system would you select?

A.

Protocol anomaly based

B.

Pattern matching

C.

Stateful matching

D.

Traffic anomaly-based

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Question # 23

Which of the following Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) uses a database of attacks, known system vulnerabilities, monitoring current attempts to exploit those vulnerabilities, and then triggers an alarm if an attempt is found?

A.

Knowledge-Based ID System

B.

Application-Based ID System

C.

Host-Based ID System

D.

Network-Based ID System

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Question # 24

Which type of algorithm is considered to have the highest strength per bit of key length of any of the asymmetric algorithms?

A.

Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)

B.

El Gamal

C.

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

D.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

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Question # 25

Which of the following standards concerns digital certificates?

A.

X.400

B.

X.25

C.

X.509

D.

X.75

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Question # 26

What is called the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a log-on ID?

A.

Authentication

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Confidentiality

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Question # 27

Which of the following is a not a preventative control?

A.

Deny programmer access to production data.

B.

Require change requests to include information about dates, descriptions, cost analysis and anticipated effects.

C.

Run a source comparison program between control and current source periodically.

D.

Establish procedures for emergency changes.

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Question # 28

Where parties do not have a shared secret and large quantities of sensitive information must be passed, the most efficient means of transferring information is to use Hybrid Encryption Methods. What does this mean?

A.

Use of public key encryption to secure a secret key, and message encryption using the secret key.

B.

Use of the recipient's public key for encryption and decryption based on the recipient's private key.

C.

Use of software encryption assisted by a hardware encryption accelerator.

D.

Use of elliptic curve encryption.

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Question # 29

Who should DECIDE how a company should approach security and what security measures should be implemented?

A.

Senior management

B.

Data owner

C.

Auditor

D.

The information security specialist

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Question # 30

When backing up an applications system's data, which of the following is a key question to be answered first?

A.

When to make backups

B.

Where to keep backups

C.

What records to backup

D.

How to store backups

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Question # 31

What is called an exception to the search warrant requirement that allows an officer to conduct a search without having the warrant in-hand if probable cause is present and destruction of the evidence is deemed imminent?

A.

Evidence Circumstance Doctrine

B.

Exigent Circumstance Doctrine

C.

Evidence of Admissibility Doctrine

D.

Exigent Probable Doctrine

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Question # 32

Why does compiled code pose more of a security risk than interpreted code?

A.

Because malicious code can be embedded in compiled code and be difficult to detect.

B.

If the executed compiled code fails, there is a chance it will fail insecurely.

C.

Because compilers are not reliable.

D.

There is no risk difference between interpreted code and compiled code.

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Question # 33

An Architecture where there are more than two execution domains or privilege levels is called:

A.

Ring Architecture.

B.

Ring Layering

C.

Network Environment.

D.

Security Models

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Question # 34

What is the main purpose of Corporate Security Policy?

A.

To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization

B.

To communicate management's intentions in regards to information security

C.

To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions

D.

To provide a common framework for all development activities

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Question # 35

Which of the following is not one of the three goals of Integrity addressed by the Clark-Wilson model?

A.

Prevention of the modification of information by unauthorized users.

B.

Prevention of the unauthorized or unintentional modification of information by authorized users.

C.

Preservation of the internal and external consistency.

D.

Prevention of the modification of information by authorized users.

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Question # 36

Which of the following is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in real time to determine violations of system security policy that have taken place?

A.

Intrusion Detection System

B.

Compliance Validation System

C.

Intrusion Management System (IMS)

D.

Compliance Monitoring System

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Question # 37

Which of the following usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources?

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Question # 38

The property of a system or a system resource being accessible and usable upon demand by an authorized system entity, according to performance specifications for the system is referred to as?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Integrity

D.

Reliability

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Question # 39

Which of the following is the act of performing tests and evaluations to test a system's security level to see if it complies with the design specifications and security requirements?

A.

Validation

B.

Verification

C.

Assessment

D.

Accuracy

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Question # 40

At what stage of the applications development process should the security department become involved?

A.

Prior to the implementation

B.

Prior to systems testing

C.

During unit testing

D.

During requirements development

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Question # 41

Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Question # 42

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a host-based intrusion detection system?

A.

A HIDS does not consume large amounts of system resources

B.

A HIDS can analyse system logs, processes and resources

C.

A HIDS looks for unauthorized changes to the system

D.

A HIDS can notify system administrators when unusual events are identified

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Question # 43

Network-based Intrusion Detection systems:

A.

Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment.

B.

Commonly will not reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment.

C.

Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and does not monitor the traffic on that network segment.

D.

Commonly reside on a host and and monitor the traffic on that specific host.

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Question # 44

What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

A.

It can be very invasive to the host operating system

B.

Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only

C.

Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption

D.

They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

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Question # 45

Who should measure the effectiveness of Information System security related controls in an organization?

A.

The local security specialist

B.

The business manager

C.

The systems auditor

D.

The central security manager

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Question # 46

Who can best decide what are the adequate technical security controls in a computer-based application system in regards to the protection of the data being used, the criticality of the data, and it's sensitivity level ?

A.

System Auditor

B.

Data or Information Owner

C.

System Manager

D.

Data or Information user

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Question # 47

In the process of gathering evidence from a computer attack, a system administrator took a series of actions which are listed below. Can you identify which one of these actions has compromised the whole evidence collection process?

A.

Using a write blocker

B.

Made a full-disk image

C.

Created a message digest for log files

D.

Displayed the contents of a folder

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Question # 48

Which of the following are additional terms used to describe knowledge-based IDS and behavior-based IDS?

A.

signature-based IDS and statistical anomaly-based IDS, respectively

B.

signature-based IDS and dynamic anomaly-based IDS, respectively

C.

anomaly-based IDS and statistical-based IDS, respectively

D.

signature-based IDS and motion anomaly-based IDS, respectively.

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Question # 49

Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

A.

audit trails.

B.

access control lists.

C.

security clearances

D.

host-based authentication

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Question # 50

Which of the following is most likely to be useful in detecting intrusions?

A.

Access control lists

B.

Security labels

C.

Audit trails

D.

Information security policies

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Question # 51

The session layer provides a logical persistent connection between peer hosts. Which of the following is one of the modes used in the session layer to establish this connection?

A.

Full duplex

B.

Synchronous

C.

Asynchronous

D.

Half simplex

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Question # 52

Which of the following enables the person responsible for contingency planning to focus risk management efforts and resources in a prioritized manner only on the identified risks?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Residual risks

C.

Security controls

D.

Business units

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Question # 53

Virus scanning and content inspection of SMIME encrypted e-mail without doing any further processing is:

A.

Not possible

B.

Only possible with key recovery scheme of all user keys

C.

It is possible only if X509 Version 3 certificates are used

D.

It is possible only by "brute force" decryption

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Question # 54

What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?

A.

Data fiddling

B.

Data diddling

C.

Salami techniques

D.

Trojan horses

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Question # 55

In biometric identification systems, the parts of the body conveniently available for identification are:

A.

neck and mouth

B.

hands, face, and eyes

C.

feet and hair

D.

voice and neck

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Question # 56

Like the Kerberos protocol, SESAME is also subject to which of the following?

A.

timeslot replay

B.

password guessing

C.

symmetric key guessing

D.

asymmetric key guessing

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Question # 57

Who first described the DoD multilevel military security policy in abstract, formal terms?

A.

David Bell and Leonard LaPadula

B.

Rivest, Shamir and Adleman

C.

Whitfield Diffie and Martin Hellman

D.

David Clark and David Wilson

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Question # 58

In Discretionary Access Control the subject has authority, within certain limitations,

A.

but he is not permitted to specify what objects can be accessible and so we need to get an independent third party to specify what objects can be accessible.

B.

to specify what objects can be accessible.

C.

to specify on a aggregate basis without understanding what objects can be accessible.

D.

to specify in full detail what objects can be accessible.

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Question # 59

Which type of password token involves time synchronization?

A.

Static password tokens

B.

Synchronous dynamic password tokens

C.

Asynchronous dynamic password tokens

D.

Challenge-response tokens

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Question # 60

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) standard pertaining to perimeter protection states that critical areas should be illuminated up to?

A.

Illiminated at nine feet high with at least three foot-candles

B.

Illiminated at eight feet high with at least three foot-candles

C.

Illiminated at eight feet high with at least two foot-candles

D.

Illuminated at nine feet high with at least two foot-candles

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Question # 61

How often should a Business Continuity Plan be reviewed?

A.

At least once a month

B.

At least every six months

C.

At least once a year

D.

At least Quarterly

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Question # 62

In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:

A.

Be a function within the information systems function of an organization.

B.

Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance.

C.

Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO.

D.

Be independent but report to the Information Systems function.

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Question # 63

Which of the following would best describe the difference between white-box testing and black-box testing?

A.

White-box testing is performed by an independent programmer team.

B.

Black-box testing uses the bottom-up approach.

C.

White-box testing examines the program internal logical structure.

D.

Black-box testing involves the business units

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Question # 64

Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems uses behavioral characteristics of a system’s operation or network traffic to draw conclusions on whether the traffic represents a risk to the network or host?

A.

Network-based ID systems.

B.

Anomaly Detection.

C.

Host-based ID systems.

D.

Signature Analysis.

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Question # 65

Which of the following determines that the product developed meets the projects goals?

A.

verification

B.

validation

C.

concurrence

D.

accuracy

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Question # 66

What prevents a process from accessing another process' data?

A.

Memory segmentation

B.

Process isolation

C.

The reference monitor

D.

Data hiding

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Question # 67

What is one disadvantage of content-dependent protection of information?

A.

It increases processing overhead.

B.

It requires additional password entry.

C.

It exposes the system to data locking.

D.

It limits the user's individual address space.

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Question # 68

Which of the following is the FIRST step in protecting data's confidentiality?

A.

Install a firewall

B.

Implement encryption

C.

Identify which information is sensitive

D.

Review all user access rights

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Question # 69

Which of the following biometric devices has the lowest user acceptance level?

A.

Retina Scan

B.

Fingerprint scan

C.

Hand geometry

D.

Signature recognition

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Question # 70

Which of the following is NOT part of the Kerberos authentication protocol?

A.

Symmetric key cryptography

B.

Authentication service (AS)

C.

Principals

D.

Public Key

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Question # 71

Which of the following statements pertaining to access control is false?

A.

Users should only access data on a need-to-know basis.

B.

If access is not explicitly denied, it should be implicitly allowed.

C.

Access rights should be granted based on the level of trust a company has on a subject.

D.

Roles can be an efficient way to assign rights to a type of user who performs certain tasks.

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Question # 72

Which of the following is true about Kerberos?

A.

It utilizes public key cryptography.

B.

It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.

C.

It depends upon symmetric ciphers.

D.

It is a second party authentication system.

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Question # 73

Controls like guards and general steps to maintain building security, securing of server rooms or laptops, the protection of cables, and usage of magnetic switches on doors and windows are some of the examples of:

A.

Administrative controls

B.

Logical controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Physical controls

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Question # 74

Which of the following is not a logical control when implementing logical access security?

A.

access profiles.

B.

userids.

C.

employee badges.

D.

passwords.

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Question # 75

The Computer Security Policy Model the Orange Book is based on is which of the following?

A.

Bell-LaPadula

B.

Data Encryption Standard

C.

Kerberos

D.

Tempest

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Question # 76

Which of the following attacks could capture network user passwords?

A.

Data diddling

B.

Sniffing

C.

IP Spoofing

D.

Smurfing

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Question # 77

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:

A.

Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

B.

Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

C.

Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

D.

Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

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Question # 78

Controls to keep password sniffing attacks from compromising computer systems include which of the following?

A.

static and recurring passwords.

B.

encryption and recurring passwords.

C.

one-time passwords and encryption.

D.

static and one-time passwords.

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Question # 79

A network-based vulnerability assessment is a type of test also referred to as:

A.

An active vulnerability assessment.

B.

A routing vulnerability assessment.

C.

A host-based vulnerability assessment.

D.

A passive vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 80

The primary service provided by Kerberos is which of the following?

A.

non-repudiation

B.

confidentiality

C.

authentication

D.

authorization

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Question # 81

The type of discretionary access control (DAC) that is based on an individual's identity is also called:

A.

Identity-based Access control

B.

Rule-based Access control

C.

Non-Discretionary Access Control

D.

Lattice-based Access control

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Question # 82

Which of the following would be used to implement Mandatory Access Control (MAC)?

A.

Clark-Wilson Access Control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Lattice-based access control

D.

User dictated access control

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Question # 83

Which of the following reviews system and event logs to detect attacks on the host and determine if the attack was successful?

A.

host-based IDS

B.

firewall-based IDS

C.

bastion-based IDS

D.

server-based IDS

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Question # 84

What is the primary goal of setting up a honeypot?

A.

To lure hackers into attacking unused systems

B.

To entrap and track down possible hackers

C.

To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network

D.

To know when certain types of attacks are in progress and to learn about attack techniques so the network can be fortified.

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Question # 85

Which of the following would NOT violate the Due Diligence concept?

A.

Security policy being outdated

B.

Data owners not laying out the foundation of data protection

C.

Network administrator not taking mandatory two-week vacation as planned

D.

Latest security patches for servers being installed as per the Patch Management process

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Question # 86

Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS) ?

A.

signature-based IDS

B.

statistical anomaly-based IDS

C.

event-based IDS

D.

inferent-based IDS

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Question # 87

A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which of the basic security functions?

A.

avoidance

B.

deterrence

C.

prevention

D.

detection

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Question # 88

What is also known as 10Base5?

A.

Thinnet

B.

Thicknet

C.

ARCnet

D.

UTP

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Question # 89

Which of the following statements pertaining to Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is false?

A.

It can be used for voice

B.

it can be used for data

C.

It carries various sizes of packets

D.

It can be used for video

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Question # 90

The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 2, what type of data is contained within the IP datagram?

A.

TCP.

B.

ICMP.

C.

UDP.

D.

IGMP.

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Question # 91

Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP Model ensures error-free delivery and packet sequencing?

A.

Internet layer

B.

Network access layer

C.

Host-to-host

D.

Application layer

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Question # 92

Which of the following statements pertaining to link encryption is false?

A.

It encrypts all the data along a specific communication path.

B.

It provides protection against packet sniffers and eavesdroppers.

C.

Information stays encrypted from one end of its journey to the other.

D.

User information, header, trailers, addresses and routing data that are part of the packets are encrypted.

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Question # 93

Which of the following is less likely to be used today in creating a Virtual Private Network?

A.

L2TP

B.

PPTP

C.

IPSec

D.

L2F

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Question # 94

Which of the following ports does NOT normally need to be open for a mail server to operate?

A.

Port 110

B.

Port 25

C.

Port 119

D.

Port 143

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Question # 95

What is a decrease in amplitude as a signal propagates along a transmission medium best known as?

A.

Crosstalk

B.

Noise

C.

Delay distortion

D.

Attenuation

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Question # 96

What is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 1.544 Mbps on a T1 facility?

A.

DS-0

B.

DS-1

C.

DS-2

D.

DS-3

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Question # 97

What protocol is used on the Local Area Network (LAN) to obtain an IP address from it's known MAC address?

A.

Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)

B.

Address resolution protocol (ARP)

C.

Data link layer

D.

Network address translation (NAT)

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Question # 98

Which of the following media is MOST resistant to tapping?

A.

microwave.

B.

twisted pair.

C.

coaxial cable.

D.

fiber optic.

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Question # 99

A group of independent servers, which are managed as a single system, that provides higher availability, easier manageability, and greater scalability is:

A.

server cluster

B.

client cluster

C.

guest cluster

D.

host cluster

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Question # 100

In which layer of the OSI Model are connection-oriented protocols located in the TCP/IP suite of protocols?

A.

Transport layer

B.

Application layer

C.

Physical layer

D.

Network layer

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Question # 101

Which of the following are suitable protocols for securing VPN connections at the lower layers of the OSI model?

A.

S/MIME and SSH

B.

TLS and SSL

C.

IPsec and L2TP

D.

PKCS#10 and X.509

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Question # 102

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or shortcoming of packet filtering gateways?

A.

The source and destination addresses, protocols, and ports contained in the IP packet header are the only information that is available to the router in making a decision whether or not to permit traffic access to an internal network.

B.

They don't protect against IP or DNS address spoofing.

C.

They do not support strong user authentication.

D.

They are appropriate for medium-risk environment.

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Question # 103

Which protocol of the TCP/IP suite addresses reliable data transport?

A.

Transmission control protocol (TCP)

B.

User datagram protocol (UDP)

C.

Internet protocol (IP)

D.

Internet control message protocol (ICMP)

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Question # 104

Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP model controls the communication flow between hosts?

A.

Internet layer

B.

Host-to-host transport layer

C.

Application layer

D.

Network access layer

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Question # 105

Who is responsible for implementing user clearances in computer-based information systems at the B3 level of the TCSEC rating ?

A.

Security administrators

B.

Operators

C.

Data owners

D.

Data custodians

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Question # 106

Which of the following are required for Life-Cycle Assurance?

A.

System Architecture and Design specification.

B.

Security Testing and Covert Channel Analysis.

C.

Security Testing and Trusted distribution.

D.

Configuration Management and Trusted Facility Management.

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Question # 107

Memory management in TCSEC levels B3 and A1 operating systems may utilize "data hiding". What does this mean?

A.

System functions are layered, and none of the functions in a given layer can access data outside that layer.

B.

Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes.

C.

Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory.

D.

It is a form of strong encryption cipher.

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Question # 108

Which of the following would MOST likely ensure that a system development project meets business objectives?

A.

Development and tests are run by different individuals

B.

User involvement in system specification and acceptance

C.

Development of a project plan identifying all development activities

D.

Strict deadlines and budgets

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Question # 109

Whose role is it to assign classification level to information?

A.

Security Administrator

B.

User

C.

Owner

D.

Auditor

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Question # 110

Which of the following refers to the data left on the media after the media has been erased?

A.

remanence

B.

recovery

C.

sticky bits

D.

semi-hidden

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Question # 111

Configuration Management controls what?

A.

Auditing of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

B.

Control of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

C.

Changes in the configuration access to the Trusted Computing Base.

D.

Auditing and controlling any changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

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Question # 112

Which of the following is NOT true concerning Application Control?

A.

It limits end users use of applications in such a way that only particular screens are visible.

B.

Only specific records can be requested through the application controls

C.

Particular usage of the application can be recorded for audit purposes

D.

It is non-transparent to the endpoint applications so changes are needed to the applications and databases involved

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Question # 113

Which of the following backup method must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used?

A.

Full Backup Method.

B.

Incremental backup method.

C.

Supplemental backup method.

D.

Tape backup method.

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Question # 114

Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?

A.

Pipelining

B.

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)

C.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)

D.

Scalar processors

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Question # 115

Which type of attack would a competitive intelligence attack best classify as?

A.

Business attack

B.

Intelligence attack

C.

Financial attack

D.

Grudge attack

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Question # 116

To be admissible in court, computer evidence must be which of the following?

A.

Relevant

B.

Decrypted

C.

Edited

D.

Incriminating

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Question # 117

Which of the following backup methods is primarily run when time and tape space permits, and is used for the system archive or baselined tape sets?

A.

full backup method.

B.

incremental backup method.

C.

differential backup method.

D.

tape backup method.

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Question # 118

What is the PRIMARY reason to maintain the chain of custody on evidence that has been collected?

A.

To ensure that no evidence is lost.

B.

To ensure that all possible evidence is gathered.

C.

To ensure that it will be admissible in court

D.

To ensure that incidents were handled with due care and due diligence.

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Question # 119

Which of the following statements pertaining to disaster recovery is incorrect?

A.

A recovery team's primary task is to get the pre-defined critical business functions at the alternate backup processing site.

B.

A salvage team's task is to ensure that the primary site returns to normal processing conditions.

C.

The disaster recovery plan should include how the company will return from the alternate site to the primary site.

D.

When returning to the primary site, the most critical applications should be brought back first.

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Question # 120

Which of the following statements regarding an off-site information processing facility is TRUE?

A.

It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the primary processing site.

B.

It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational.

C.

It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found.

D.

Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive.

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Question # 121

For which areas of the enterprise are business continuity plans required?

A.

All areas of the enterprise.

B.

The financial and information processing areas of the enterprise.

C.

The operating areas of the enterprise.

D.

The marketing, finance, and information processing areas.

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Question # 122

Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is not defined as a preparation that facilitates:

A.

the rapid recovery of mission-critical business operations

B.

the continuation of critical business functions

C.

the monitoring of threat activity for adjustment of technical controls

D.

the reduction of the impact of a disaster

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Question # 123

Which virus category has the capability of changing its own code, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software?

A.

Stealth viruses

B.

Polymorphic viruses

C.

Trojan horses

D.

Logic bombs

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Question # 124

Java is not:

A.

Object-oriented.

B.

Distributed.

C.

Architecture Specific.

D.

Multithreaded.

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Question # 125

Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?

A.

IP spoofing

B.

Password sniffing

C.

Data diddling

D.

Denial of service (DOS)

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Question # 126

Which of the following technologies is a target of XSS or CSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks?

A.

Web Applications

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Firewalls

D.

DNS Servers

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Question # 127

Crackers today are MOST often motivated by their desire to:

A.

Help the community in securing their networks.

B.

Seeing how far their skills will take them.

C.

Getting recognition for their actions.

D.

Gaining Money or Financial Gains.

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Question # 128

In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.

A.

virus

B.

worm

C.

Trojan horse.

D.

trapdoor

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Question # 129

What is malware that can spread itself over open network connections?

A.

Worm

B.

Rootkit

C.

Adware

D.

Logic Bomb

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Question # 130

What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?

A.

They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.

B.

They have nothing in common.

C.

They are both masquerading attacks.

D.

They are both social engineering attacks.

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Question # 131

Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?

A.

Boot Sector

B.

Parasitic

C.

Stealth

D.

Polymorphic

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Question # 132

The high availability of multiple all-inclusive, easy-to-use hacking tools that do NOT require much technical knowledge has brought a growth in the number of which type of attackers?

A.

Black hats

B.

White hats

C.

Script kiddies

D.

Phreakers

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Question # 133

Which of the following category of UTP cables is specified to be able to handle gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) according to the EIA/TIA-568-B standards?

A.

Category 5e UTP

B.

Category 2 UTP

C.

Category 3 UTP

D.

Category 1e UTP

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Question # 134

What is called an attack in which an attacker floods a system with connection requests but does not respond when the target system replies to those requests?

A.

Ping of death attack

B.

SYN attack

C.

Smurf attack

D.

Buffer overflow attack

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Question # 135

Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a protocol that one program can use to request a service from a program located in another computer in a network. Within which OSI/ISO layer is RPC implemented?

A.

Session layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Data link layer

D.

Network layer

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Question # 136

Communications and network security relates to transmission of which of the following?

A.

voice

B.

voice and multimedia

C.

data and multimedia

D.

voice, data and multimedia

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Question # 137

Which communication method is characterized by very high speed transmission rates that are governed by electronic clock timing signals?

A.

Asynchronous Communication.

B.

Synchronous Communication.

C.

Automatic Communication.

D.

Full duplex Communication.

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Question # 138

Which of the following is required in order to provide accountability?

A.

Authentication

B.

Integrity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Audit trails

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