What is the primary role of cross certification?
Creating trust between different PKIs
Build an overall PKI hierarchy
set up direct trust to a second root CA
Prevent the nullification of user certificates by CA certificate revocation
More and more organizations are setting up their own internal PKIs. When these independent PKIs need to interconnect to allow for secure communication to take place (either between departments or different companies), there must be a way for the two root CAs to trust each other.
These two CAs do not have a CA above them they can both trust, so they must carry out cross certification. A cross certification is the process undertaken by CAs to establish a trust relationship in which they rely upon each other's digital certificates and public keys as if they had issued them themselves.
When this is set up, a CA for one company can validate digital certificates from the other company and vice versa.
Reference(s) used for this question:
For more information and illustration on Cross certification: http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/windowsserver2003/technologies/security/ws03qswp.mspx http://www.entrust.com/resources/pdf/cross_certification.pdf
also see:
Shon Harris, CISSP All in one book, 4th Edition, Page 727
and
RFC 2459: Internet X.509 Public Key Infrastructure Certificate and CRL Profile; FORD, Warwick & BAUM, Michael S., Secure Electronic Commerce: Building the Infrastructure for Digital Signatures and Encryption (2nd Edition), 2000, Prentice Hall PTR, Page 254.
What uses a key of the same length as the message where each bit or character from the plaintext is encrypted by a modular addition?
Running key cipher
One-time pad
Steganography
Cipher block chaining
In cryptography, the one-time pad (OTP) is a type of encryption that is impossible to crack if used correctly. Each bit or character from the plaintext is encrypted by a modular addition with a bit or character from a secret random key (or pad) of the same length as the plaintext, resulting in a ciphertext. If the key is truly random, at least as long as the plaintext, never reused in whole or part, and kept secret, the ciphertext will be impossible to decrypt or break without knowing the key. It has also been proven that any cipher with the perfect secrecy property must use keys with effectively the same requirements as OTP keys. However, practical problems have prevented one-time pads from being widely used.
First described by Frank Miller in 1882, the one-time pad was re-invented in 1917 and patented a couple of years later. It is derived from the Vernam cipher, named after Gilbert Vernam, one of its inventors. Vernam's system was a cipher that combined a message with a key read from a punched tape. In its original form, Vernam's system was vulnerable because the key tape was a loop, which was reused whenever the loop made a full cycle. One-time use came a little later when Joseph Mauborgne recognized that if the key tape were totally random, cryptanalysis would be impossible.
The "pad" part of the name comes from early implementations where the key material was distributed as a pad of paper, so the top sheet could be easily torn off and destroyed after use. For easy concealment, the pad was sometimes reduced to such a small size that a powerful magnifying glass was required to use it. Photos show captured KGB pads that fit in the palm of one's hand, or in a walnut shell. To increase security, one-time pads were sometimes printed onto sheets of highly flammable nitrocellulose so they could be quickly burned.
The following are incorrect answers:
A running key cipher uses articles in the physical world rather than an electronic algorithm. In classical cryptography, the running key cipher is a type of polyalphabetic substitution cipher in which a text, typically from a book, is used to provide a very long keystream. Usually, the book to be used would be agreed ahead of time, while the passage to use would be chosen randomly for each message and secretly indicated somewhere in the message.
The Running Key cipher has the same internal workings as the Vigenere cipher. The difference lies in how the key is chosen; the Vigenere cipher uses a short key that repeats, whereas the running key cipher uses a long key such as an excerpt from a book. This means the key does not repeat, making cryptanalysis more difficult. The cipher can still be broken though, as there are statistical patterns in both the key and the plaintext which can be exploited.
Steganography is a method where the very existence of the message is concealed. It is the art and science of encoding hidden messages in such a way that no one, apart from the sender and intended recipient, suspects the existence of the message. it is sometimes referred to as Hiding in Plain Sight.
Cipher block chaining is a DES operating mode. IBM invented the cipher-block chaining (CBC) mode of operation in 1976. In CBC mode, each block of plaintext is XORed with the previous ciphertext block before being encrypted. This way, each ciphertext block depends on all plaintext blocks processed up to that point. To make each message unique, an initialization vector must be used in the first block.
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 8: Cryptography (page 555).
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/One-time_pad
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Running_key_cipher
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cipher_block_chaining#Cipher-block_chaining_.28CBC.29
Which of the following can best be defined as a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of some plaintext-ciphertext pairs?
A known-plaintext attack
A known-algorithm attack
A chosen-ciphertext attack
A chosen-plaintext attack
RFC2828 (Internet Security Glossary) defines a known-plaintext attack as a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of some plaintext-ciphertext pairs (although the analyst may also have other clues, such as the knowing the cryptographic algorithm). A chosen-ciphertext attack is defined as a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of plaintext that corresponds to ciphertext selected (i.e., dictated) by the analyst. A chosen-plaintext attack is a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of ciphertext that corresponds to plaintext selected (i.e., dictated) by the analyst. The other choice is a distracter.
The following are incorrect answers:
A chosen-plaintext attacks
The attacker has the plaintext and ciphertext, but can choose the plaintext that gets encrypted to see the corresponding ciphertext. This gives her more power and possibly a deeper understanding of the way the encryption process works so she can gather more information about the key being used. Once the key is discovered, other messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted.
A chosen-ciphertext attack
In chosen-ciphertext attacks, the attacker can choose the ciphertext to be decrypted and has access to the resulting decrypted plaintext. Again, the goal is to figure out the key. This is a harder attack to carry out compared to the previously mentioned attacks, and the attacker may need to have control of the system that contains the cryptosystem.
A known-algorithm attack
Knowing the algorithm does not give you much advantage without knowing the key. This is a bogus detractor. The algorithm should be public, which is the Kerckhoffs's Principle . The only secret should be the key.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.
and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 866). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
Kerckhoffs's Principle
Which of the following concerning the Rijndael block cipher algorithm is false?
The design of Rijndael was strongly influenced by the design of the block cipher Square.
A total of 25 combinations of key length and block length are possible
Both block size and key length can be extended to multiples of 64 bits.
The cipher has a variable block length and key length.
The answer above is the correct answer because it is FALSE. Rijndael does not support multiples of 64 bits but multiples of 32 bits in the range of 128 bits to 256 bits. Key length could be 128, 160, 192, 224, and 256.
Both block length and key length can be extended very easily to multiples of 32 bits. For a total combination of 25 different block and key size that are possible.
The Rijndael Cipher
Rijndael is a block cipher, designed by Joan Daemen and Vincent Rijmen as a candidate algorithm for the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) in the United States of America. The cipher has a variable block length and key length.
Rijndael can be implemented very efficiently on a wide range of processors and in hardware.
The design of Rijndael was strongly influenced by the design of the block cipher Square.
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) keys are defined to be either 128, 192, or 256 bits in accordance with the requirements of the AES.
The number of rounds, or iterations of the main algorithm, can vary from 10 to 14 within the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and is dependent on the block size and key length. 128 bits keys uses 10 rounds or encryptions, 192 bits keys uses 12 rounds of encryption, and 256 bits keys uses 14 rounds of encryption.
The low number of rounds has been one of the main criticisms of Rijndael, but if this ever becomes a problem the number of rounds can easily be increased at little extra cost performance wise by increasing the block size and key length.
Range of key and block lengths in Rijndael and AES
Rijndael and AES differ only in the range of supported values for the block length and cipher key length.
For Rijndael, the block length and the key length can be independently specified to any multiple of 32 bits, with a minimum of 128 bits, and a maximum of 256 bits. The support for block and key lengths 160 and 224 bits was introduced in Joan Daemen and Vincent Rijmen, AES submission document on Rijndael, Version 2, September 1999 available at http://csrc.nist.gov/archive/aes/rijndael/Rijndael-ammended.pdf
AES fixes the block length to 128 bits, and supports key lengths of 128, 192 or 256 bits only.
Reference used for this question:
The Rijndael Page
and
http://csrc.nist.gov/archive/aes/rijndael/Rijndael-ammended.pdf
and
FIPS PUB 197, Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), National Institute of Standards and Technology, U.S. Department of Commerce, November 2001.
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
Public Key cryptography.
Secret Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography.
Blowfish cryptography.
Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography.
Kerberos a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980's by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user's secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
This question asked specifically about encryption methods. Encryption methods can be SYMMETRIC (or secret key) in which encryption and decryption keys are the same, or ASYMMETRIC (aka 'Public Key') in which encryption and decryption keys differ.
'Public Key' methods must be asymmetric, to the extent that the decryption key CANNOT be easily derived from the encryption key. Symmetric keys, however, usually encrypt more efficiently, so they lend themselves to encrypting large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption is often limited to ONLY encrypting a symmetric key and other information that is needed in order to decrypt a data stream, and the remainder of the encrypted data uses the symmetric key method for performance reasons. This does not in any way diminish the security nor the ability to use a public key to encrypt the data, since the symmetric key method is likely to be even MORE secure than the asymmetric method.
For symmetric key ciphers, there are basically two types: BLOCK CIPHERS, in which a fixed length block is encrypted, and STREAM CIPHERS, in which the data is encrypted one 'data unit' (typically 1 byte) at a time, in the same order it was received in.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography and not Public Key or Asymmetric Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography. Is incorrect because El Gamal is an Asymmetric Key encryption algorithm.
Blowfish cryptography. Is incorrect because Blowfish is a Symmetric Key encryption algorithm.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (pages 181 - 184)
AIOv3 Access Control (pages 151 - 155)
Wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blowfish_%28cipher%29 ; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/El_Gamal
http://www.mrp3.com/encrypt.html
Which of the following terms can be described as the process to conceal data into another file or media in a practice known as security through obscurity?
Steganography
ADS - Alternate Data Streams
Encryption
NTFS ADS
It is the art and science of encoding hidden messages in such a way that no one, apart from the sender and intended recipient, suspects the existence of the message or could claim there is a message.
It is a form of security through obscurity.
The word steganography is of Greek origin and means "concealed writing." It combines the Greek words steganos (στεγανός), meaning "covered or protected," and graphei (γÏαφή) meaning "writing."
The first recorded use of the term was in 1499 by Johannes Trithemius in his Steganographia, a treatise on cryptography and steganography, disguised as a book on magic. Generally, the hidden messages will appear to be (or be part of) something else: images, articles, shopping lists, or some other cover text. For example, the hidden message may be in invisible ink between the visible lines of a private letter.
The advantage of steganography over cryptography alone is that the intended secret message does not attract attention to itself as an object of scrutiny. Plainly visible encrypted messages, no matter how unbreakable, will arouse interest, and may in themselves be incriminating in countries where encryption is illegal. Thus, whereas cryptography is the practice of protecting the contents of a message alone, steganography is concerned with concealing the fact that a secret message is being sent, as well as concealing the contents of the message.
It is sometimes referred to as Hiding in Plain Sight. This image of trees blow contains in it another image of a cat using Steganography.
ADS Tree with Cat inside
This image below is hidden in the picture of the trees above:
Hidden Kitty
As explained here the image is hidden by removing all but the two least significant bits of each color component and subsequent normalization.
ABOUT MSF and LSF
One of the common method to perform steganography is by hiding bits within the Least Significant Bits of a media (LSB) or what is sometimes referred to as Slack Space. By modifying only the least significant bit, it is not possible to tell if there is an hidden message or not looking at the picture or the media. If you would change the Most Significant Bits (MSB) then it would be possible to view or detect the changes just by looking at the picture. A person can perceive only up to 6 bits of depth, bit that are changed past the first sixth bit of the color code would be undetectable to a human eye.
If we make use of a high quality digital picture, we could hide six bits of data within each of the pixel of the image. You have a color code for each pixel composed of a Red, Green, and Blue value. The color code is 3 sets of 8 bits each for each of the color. You could change the last two bit to hide your data. See below a color code for one pixel in binary format. The bits below are not real they are just example for illustration purpose:
RED GREEN BLUE
0101 0101 1100 1011 1110 0011
MSB LSB MSB LSB MSB LSB
Let's say that I would like to hide the letter A uppercase within the pixels of the picture. If we convert the letter "A" uppercase to a decimal value it would be number 65 within the ASCII table , in binary format the value 65 would translet to 01000001
You can break the 8 bits of character A uppercase in group of two bits as follow: 01 00 00 01
Using the pixel above we will hide those bits within the last two bits of each of the color as follow:
RED GREEN BLUE
0101 0101 1100 1000 1110 0000
MSB LSB MSB LSB MSB LSB
As you can see above, the last two bits of RED was already set to the proper value of 01, then we move to the GREEN value and we changed the last two bit from 11 to 00, and finally we changed the last two bits of blue to 00. One pixel allowed us to hide 6 bits of data. We would have to use another pixel to hide the remaining two bits.
The following answers are incorrect:
- ADS - Alternate Data Streams: This is almost correct but ADS is different from steganography in that ADS hides data in streams of communications or files while Steganography hides data in a single file.
- Encryption: This is almost correct but Steganography isn't exactly encryption as much as using space in a file to store another file.
- NTFS ADS: This is also almost correct in that you're hiding data where you have space to do so. NTFS, or New Technology File System common on Windows computers has a feature where you can hide files where they're not viewable under normal conditions. Tools are required to uncover the ADS-hidden files.
The following reference(s) was used to create this question:
The CCCure Security+ Holistic Tutorial at http://www.cccure.tv
and
Steganography tool
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Steganography
What attribute is included in a X.509-certificate?
Distinguished name of the subject
Telephone number of the department
secret key of the issuing CA
the key pair of the certificate holder
RFC 2459 : Internet X.509 Public Key Infrastructure Certificate and CRL Profile; GUTMANN, P., X.509 style guide; SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.
A one-way hash provides which of the following?
Confidentiality
Availability
Integrity
Authentication
A one-way hash is a function that takes a variable-length string a message, and compresses and transforms it into a fixed length value referred to as a hash value. It provides integrity, but no confidentiality, availability or authentication.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CBK#5 Cryptography (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 5).
Which of the following cryptographic attacks describes when the attacker has a copy of the plaintext and the corresponding ciphertext?
known plaintext
brute force
ciphertext only
chosen plaintext
The goal to this type of attack is to find the cryptographic key that was used to encrypt the message. Once the key has been found, the attacker would then be able to decrypt all messages that had been encrypted using that key.
The known-plaintext attack (KPA) or crib is an attack model for cryptanalysis where the attacker has samples of both the plaintext and its encrypted version (ciphertext), and is at liberty to make use of them to reveal further secret information such as secret keys and code books. The term "crib" originated at Bletchley Park, the British World War II decryption operation
In cryptography, a brute force attack or exhaustive key search is a strategy that can in theory be used against any encrypted data by an attacker who is unable to take advantage of any weakness in an encryption system that would otherwise make his task easier. It involves systematically checking all possible keys until the correct key is found. In the worst case, this would involve traversing the entire key space, also called search space.
In cryptography, a ciphertext-only attack (COA) or known ciphertext attack is an attack model for cryptanalysis where the attacker is assumed to have access only to a set of ciphertexts.
The attack is completely successful if the corresponding plaintexts can be deduced, or even better, the key. The ability to obtain any information at all about the underlying plaintext is still considered a success. For example, if an adversary is sending ciphertext continuously to maintain traffic-flow security, it would be very useful to be able to distinguish real messages from nulls. Even making an informed guess of the existence of real messages would facilitate traffic analysis.
In the history of cryptography, early ciphers, implemented using pen-and-paper, were routinely broken using ciphertexts alone. Cryptographers developed statistical techniques for attacking ciphertext, such as frequency analysis. Mechanical encryption devices such as Enigma made these attacks much more difficult (although, historically, Polish cryptographers were able to mount a successful ciphertext-only cryptanalysis of the Enigma by exploiting an insecure protocol for indicating the message settings).
Every modern cipher attempts to provide protection against ciphertext-only attacks. The vetting process for a new cipher design standard usually takes many years and includes exhaustive testing of large quantities of ciphertext for any statistical departure from random noise. See: Advanced Encryption Standard process. Also, the field of steganography evolved, in part, to develop methods like mimic functions that allow one piece of data to adopt the statistical profile of another. Nonetheless poor cipher usage or reliance on home-grown proprietary algorithms that have not been subject to thorough scrutiny has resulted in many computer-age encryption systems that are still subject to ciphertext-only attack. Examples include:
Early versions of Microsoft's PPTP virtual private network software used the same RC4 key for the sender and the receiver (later versions had other problems). In any case where a stream cipher like RC4 is used twice with the same key it is open to ciphertext-only attack. See: stream cipher attack
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), the first security protocol for Wi-Fi, proved vulnerable to several attacks, most of them ciphertext-only.
A chosen-plaintext attack (CPA) is an attack model for cryptanalysis which presumes that the attacker has the capability to choose arbitrary plaintexts to be encrypted and obtain the corresponding ciphertexts. The goal of the attack is to gain some further information which reduces the security of the encryption scheme. In the worst case, a chosen-plaintext attack could reveal the scheme's secret key.
This appears, at first glance, to be an unrealistic model; it would certainly be unlikely that an attacker could persuade a human cryptographer to encrypt large amounts of plaintexts of the attacker's choosing. Modern cryptography, on the other hand, is implemented in software or hardware and is used for a diverse range of applications; for many cases, a chosen-plaintext attack is often very feasible. Chosen-plaintext attacks become extremely important in the context of public key cryptography, where the encryption key is public and attackers can encrypt any plaintext they choose.
Any cipher that can prevent chosen-plaintext attacks is then also guaranteed to be secure against known-plaintext and ciphertext-only attacks; this is a conservative approach to security.
Two forms of chosen-plaintext attack can be distinguished:
Batch chosen-plaintext attack, where the cryptanalyst chooses all plaintexts before any of them are encrypted. This is often the meaning of an unqualified use of "chosen-plaintext attack".
Adaptive chosen-plaintext attack, where the cryptanalyst makes a series of interactive queries, choosing subsequent plaintexts based on the information from the previous encryptions.
References:
Source: TIPTON, Harold, Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK (2007), page 271.
and
Wikipedia at the following links:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chosen-plaintext_attack
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Known-plaintext_attack
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ciphertext-only_attack
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brute_force_attack
Which of the following protects Kerberos against replay attacks?
Tokens
Passwords
Cryptography
Time stamps
A replay attack refers to the recording and retransmission of packets on the network. Kerberos uses time stamps, which protect against this type of attack.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 8: Cryptography (page 581).
Which is NOT a suitable method for distributing certificate revocation information?
CA revocation mailing list
Delta CRL
OCSP (online certificate status protocol)
Distribution point CRL
The following are incorrect answers because they are all suitable methods.
A Delta CRL is a CRL that only provides information about certificates whose statuses have changed since the issuance of a specific, previously issued CRL.
The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is an Internet protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate.
A Distribution point CRL or CRL Distribution Point, a location specified in the CRL Distribution Point (CRL DP) X.509, version 3, certificate extension when the certificate is issued.
References:
RFC 2459: Internet X.509 Public Key Infrastru
http://csrc.nist.gov/groups/ST/crypto_apps_infra/documents/sliding_window.pdf
http://www.ipswitch.eu/online_certificate_status_protocol_en.html
Computer Security Handbook By Seymour Bosworth, Arthur E. Hutt, Michel E. Kabay http://books.google.com/books?id=rCx5OfSFUPkC &printsec=frontcover&dq=Computer+Security+Handbook#PRA6-PA4,M1
Which type of attack is based on the probability of two different messages using the same hash function producing a common message digest?
Differential cryptanalysis
Differential linear cryptanalysis
Birthday attack
Statistical attack
A Birthday attack is usually applied to the probability of two different messages using the same hash function producing a common message digest.
The term "birthday" comes from the fact that in a room with 23 people, the probability of two of more people having the same birthday is greater than 50%.
Linear cryptanalysis is a general form of cryptanalysis based on finding affine approximations to the action of a cipher. Attacks have been developed for block ciphers and stream ciphers. Linear cryptanalysis is one of the two most widely used attacks on block ciphers; the other being differential cryptanalysis.
Differential Cryptanalysis is a potent cryptanalytic technique introduced by Biham and Shamir. Differential cryptanalysis is designed for the study and attack of DES-like cryptosystems. A DES-like cryptosystem is an iterated cryptosystem which relies on conventional cryptographic techniques such as substitution and diffusion.
Differential cryptanalysis is a general form of cryptanalysis applicable primarily to block ciphers, but also to stream ciphers and cryptographic hash functions. In the broadest sense, it is the study of how differences in an input can affect the resultant difference at the output. In the case of a block cipher, it refers to a set of techniques for tracing differences through the network of transformations, discovering where the cipher exhibits non-random behaviour, and exploiting such properties to recover the secret key.
Source:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 163).
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differential_cryptanalysis
Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?
RSA
Elliptic Curve
RC5
El Gamal
RC5 is a symmetric encryption algorithm. It is a block cipher of variable block length, encrypts through integer addition, the application of a bitwise Exclusive OR (XOR), and variable rotations.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 153).
A code, as is pertains to cryptography:
Is a generic term for encryption.
Is specific to substitution ciphers.
Deals with linguistic units.
Is specific to transposition ciphers.
Historically, a code refers to a cryptosystem that deals with linguistic units: words, phrases, sentences, and so forth. Codes are only useful for specialized circumstances where the message to transmit has an already defined equivalent ciphertext word.
Source: DUPUIS, Cl?ment, CISSP Open Study Guide on domain 5, cryptography, April 1999.
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses a Message Authentication Code (MAC) for what purpose?
message non-repudiation.
message confidentiality.
message interleave checking.
message integrity.
A keyed hash also called a MAC (message authentication code) is used for integrity protection and authenticity.
In cryptography, a message authentication code (MAC) is a generated value used to authenticate a message. A MAC can be generated by HMAC or CBC-MAC methods. The MAC protects both a message’s integrity (by ensuring that a different MAC will be produced if the message has changed) as well as its authenticity, because only someone who knows the secret key could have modified the message.
MACs differ from digital signatures as MAC values are both generated and verified using the same secret key. This implies that the sender and receiver of a message must agree on the same key before initiating communications, as is the case with symmetric encryption. For the same reason, MACs do not provide the property of non-repudiation offered by signatures specifically in the case of a network-wide shared secret key: any user who can verify a MAC is also capable of generating MACs for other messages.
HMAC
When using HMAC the symmetric key of the sender would be concatenated (added at the end) with the message. The result of this process (message + secret key) would be put through a hashing algorithm, and the result would be a MAC value. This MAC value is then appended to the message being sent. If an enemy were to intercept this message and modify it, he would not have the necessary symmetric key to create a valid MAC value. The receiver would detect the tampering because the MAC value would not be valid on the receiving side.
CBC-MAC
If a CBC-MAC is being used, the message is encrypted with a symmetric block cipher in CBC mode, and the output of the final block of ciphertext is used as the MAC. The sender does not send the encrypted version of the message, but instead sends the plaintext version and the MAC attached to the message. The receiver receives the plaintext message and encrypts it with the same symmetric block cipher in CBC mode and calculates an independent MAC value. The receiver compares the new MAC value with the MAC value sent with the message. This method does not use a hashing algorithm as does HMAC.
Cipher-Based Message Authentication Code (CMAC)
Some security issues with CBC-MAC were found and they created Cipher-Based Message Authentication Code (CMAC) as a replacement. CMAC provides the same type of data origin authentication and integrity as CBC-MAC, but is more secure mathematically. CMAC is a variation of CBC-MAC. It is approved to work with AES and Triple DES. HMAC, CBC-MAC, and CMAC work higher in the network stack and can identify not only transmission errors (accidental), but also more nefarious modifications, as in an attacker messing with a message for her own benefit. This means all of these technologies can identify intentional, unauthorized modifications and accidental changes— three in one.
The following are all incorrect answers:
"Message non-repudiation" is incorrect.
Nonrepudiation is the assurance that someone cannot deny something. Typically, nonrepudiation refers to the ability to ensure that a party to a contract or a communication cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated.
To repudiate means to deny. For many years, authorities have sought to make repudiation impossible in some situations. You might send registered mail, for example, so the recipient cannot deny that a letter was delivered. Similarly, a legal document typically requires witnesses to signing so that the person who signs cannot deny having done so.
On the Internet, a digital signature is used not only to ensure that a message or document has been electronically signed by the person that purported to sign the document, but also, since a digital signature can only be created by one person, to ensure that a person cannot later deny that they furnished the signature.
"Message confidentiality" is incorrect. The Message confidentiality is protected by encryption not by hashing algorithms.
"Message interleave checking" is incorrect. This is a nonsense term included as a distractor.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1384). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-38B/SP_800-38B.pdf
and
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/nonrepudiation
and
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Message_authentication_code
Which of the following does NOT concern itself with key management?
Internet Security Association Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)
Diffie-Hellman (DH)
Cryptology (CRYPTO)
Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA)
Cryptology is the science that includes both cryptography and cryptanalysis and is not directly concerned with key management. Cryptology is the mathematics, such as number theory, and the application of formulas and algorithms, that underpin cryptography and cryptanalysis.
The following are all concerned with Key Management which makes them the wrong choices:
Internet Security Association Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) is a key management protocol used by IPSec. ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) is a protocol defined by RFC 2408 for establishing Security Associations (SA) and cryptographic keys in an Internet environment. ISAKMP only provides a framework for authentication and key exchange. The actual key exchange is done by the Oakley Key Determination Protocol which is a key-agreement protocol that allows authenticated parties to exchange keying material across an insecure connection using the Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm.
Diffie-Hellman and one variation of the Diffie-Hellman algorithm called the Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA) are also key exchange protocols. Key exchange (also known as "key establishment") is any method in cryptography by which cryptographic keys are exchanged between users, allowing use of a cryptographic algorithm. Diffie–Hellman key exchange (D–H) is a specific method of exchanging keys. It is one of the earliest practical examples of key exchange implemented within the field of cryptography. The Diffie–Hellman key exchange method allows two parties that have no prior knowledge of each other to jointly establish a shared secret key over an insecure communications channel. This key can then be used to encrypt subsequent communications using a symmetric key cipher.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Mike Meyers CISSP Certification Passport, by Shon Harris and Mike Meyers, page 228.
It is highlighted as an EXAM TIP. Which tells you that it is a must know for the purpose of the exam.
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8: Cryptography (page 713-715).
and
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISAKMP
and
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/cryptology
Which of the following statements pertaining to key management is incorrect?
The more a key is used, the shorter its lifetime should be.
When not using the full keyspace, the key should be extremely random.
Keys should be backed up or escrowed in case of emergencies.
A key's lifetime should correspond with the sensitivity of the data it is protecting.
A key should always be using the full spectrum of the keyspace and be extremely random. Other statements are correct.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CBK#5 Cryptography (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 6).
Which of the following statements pertaining to message digests is incorrect?
The original file cannot be created from the message digest.
Two different files should not have the same message digest.
The message digest should be calculated using at least 128 bytes of the file.
Messages digests are usually of fixed size.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 160).
As a result of a risk assessment, your security manager has determined that your organization needs to implement an intrusion detection system that can detect unknown attacks and can watch for unusual traffic behavior, such as a new service appearing on the network. What type of intrusion detection system would you select?
Protocol anomaly based
Pattern matching
Stateful matching
Traffic anomaly-based
Traffic anomaly-based is the correct choice. An anomaly based IDS can detect unknown attacks. A traffic anomaly based IDS identifies any unacceptable deviation from expected behavior based on network traffic.
Protocol anomaly based is not the best choice as while a protocol anomaly based IDS can identify unknown attacks, this type of system is more suited to identifying deviations from established protocol standards such as HTTP. This type of IDS faces problems in analyzing complex or custom protocols.
Pattern matching is not the best choice as a pattern matching IDS cannot identify unknown attacks. This type of system can only compare packets against signatures of known attacks.
Stateful matching is not the best choice as a statful matching IDS cannot identify unknown attacks. This type of system works by scanning traffic streams for patterns or signatures of attacks.
Which of the following Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) uses a database of attacks, known system vulnerabilities, monitoring current attempts to exploit those vulnerabilities, and then triggers an alarm if an attempt is found?
Knowledge-Based ID System
Application-Based ID System
Host-Based ID System
Network-Based ID System
Knowledge-based Intrusion Detection Systems use a database of previous attacks and known system vulnerabilities to look for current attempts to exploit their vulnerabilities, and trigger an alarm if an attempt is found.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 87.
Application-Based ID System - "a subset of HIDS that analyze what's going on in an application using the transaction log files of the application." Source: Official ISC2 CISSP CBK Review Seminar Student Manual Version 7.0 p. 87
Host-Based ID System - "an implementation of IDS capabilities at the host level. Its most significant difference from NIDS is intrusion detection analysis, and related processes are limited to the boundaries of the host." Source: Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK - p. 197
Network-Based ID System - "a network device, or dedicated system attached to teh network, that monitors traffic traversing teh network segment for which it is integrated." Source: Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK - p. 196
Which type of algorithm is considered to have the highest strength per bit of key length of any of the asymmetric algorithms?
Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)
El Gamal
Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
The other answers are not correct because:
"Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)" is incorrect because RSA is a "traditional" asymmetric algorithm. While it is reasonably strong, it is not considered to be as strong as ECC based systems.
"El Gamal" is incorrect because it is also a "traditional" asymmetric algorithm and not considered as strong as ECC based systems.
"Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)" is incorrect because the question asks specifically about asymmetric algorithms and AES is a symmetric algorithm.
References:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 258
All in One Third Edition page: 638
The RSA Crypto FAQ: http://www.rsa.com/rsalabs/node.asp?id=2241
Which of the following standards concerns digital certificates?
X.400
X.25
X.509
X.75
X.509 is used in digital certificates. X.400 is used in e-mail as a message handling protocol. X.25 is a standard for the network and data link levels of a communication network and X.75 is a standard defining ways of connecting two X.25 networks.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 164).
What is called the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a log-on ID?
Authentication
Identification
Authorization
Confidentiality
Identification is the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a log-on ID to the system.
Identification is nothing more than claiming you are somebody. You identify yourself when you speak to someone on the phone that you don’t know, and they ask you who they’re speaking to. When you say, “I’m Jason.â€, you’ve just identified yourself.
In the information security world, this is analogous to entering a username. It’s not analogous to entering a password. Entering a password is a method for verifying that you are who you identified yourself as.
NOTE: The word "professing" used above means: "to say that you are, do, or feel something when other people doubt what you say". This is exactly what happen when you provide your identifier (identification), you claim to be someone but the system cannot take your word for it, you must further Authenticate to the system to prove who you claim to be.
The following are incorrect answers:
Authentication: is how one proves that they are who they say they are. When you claim to be Jane Smith by logging into a computer system as “jsmithâ€, it’s most likely going to ask you for a password. You’ve claimed to be that person by entering the name into the username field (that’s the identification part), but now you have to prove that you are really that person.
Many systems use a password for this, which is based on “something you knowâ€, i.e. a secret between you and the system.
Another form of authentication is presenting something you have, such as a driver’s license, an RSA token, or a smart card.
You can also authenticate via something you are. This is the foundation for biometrics. When you do this, you first identify yourself and then submit a thumb print, a retina scan, or another form of bio-based authentication.
Once you’ve successfully authenticated, you have now done two things: you’ve claimed to be someone, and you’ve proven that you are that person. The only thing that’s left is for the system to determine what you’re allowed to do.
Authorization: is what takes place after a person has been both identified and authenticated; it’s the step determines what a person can then do on the system.
An example in people terms would be someone knocking on your door at night. You say, “Who is it?â€, and wait for a response. They say, “It’s John.†in order to identify themselves. You ask them to back up into the light so you can see them through the peephole. They do so, and you authenticate them based on what they look like (biometric). At that point you decide they can come inside the house.
If they had said they were someone you didn’t want in your house (identification), and you then verified that it was that person (authentication), the authorization phase would not include access to the inside of the house.
Confidentiality: Is one part of the CIA triad. It prevents sensitive information from reaching the wrong people, while making sure that the right people can in fact get it. A good example is a credit card number while shopping online, the merchant needs it to clear the transaction but you do not want your informaiton exposed over the network, you would use a secure link such as SSL, TLS, or some tunneling tool to protect the information from prying eyes between point A and point B. Data encryption is a common method of ensuring confidentiality.
The other parts of the CIA triad are listed below:
Integrity involves maintaining the consistency, accuracy, and trustworthiness of data over its entire life cycle. Data must not be changed in transit, and steps must be taken to ensure that data cannot be altered by unauthorized people (for example, in a breach of confidentiality). In addition, some means must be in place to detect any changes in data that might occur as a result of non-human-caused events such as an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) or server crash. If an unexpected change occurs, a backup copy must be available to restore the affected data to its correct state.
Availability is best ensured by rigorously maintaining all hardware, performing hardware repairs immediately when needed, providing a certain measure of redundancy and failover, providing adequate communications bandwidth and preventing the occurrence of bottlenecks, implementing emergency backup power systems, keeping current with all necessary system upgrades, and guarding against malicious actions such as denial-of-service (DoS) attacks.
Reference used for this question:
http://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/Confidentiality-integrity-and-availability-CIA
http://www.danielmiessler.com/blog/security-identification-authentication-and-authorization
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/profess
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 36.
Which of the following is a not a preventative control?
Deny programmer access to production data.
Require change requests to include information about dates, descriptions, cost analysis and anticipated effects.
Run a source comparison program between control and current source periodically.
Establish procedures for emergency changes.
Running the source comparison program between control and current source periodically allows detection, not prevention, of unauthorized changes in the production environment. Other options are preventive controls.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 309).
Where parties do not have a shared secret and large quantities of sensitive information must be passed, the most efficient means of transferring information is to use Hybrid Encryption Methods. What does this mean?
Use of public key encryption to secure a secret key, and message encryption using the secret key.
Use of the recipient's public key for encryption and decryption based on the recipient's private key.
Use of software encryption assisted by a hardware encryption accelerator.
Use of elliptic curve encryption.
A Public Key is also known as an asymmetric algorithm and the use of a secret key would be a symmetric algorithm.
The following answers are incorrect:
Use of the recipient's public key for encryption and decryption based on the recipient's private key. Is incorrect this would be known as an asymmetric algorithm.
Use of software encryption assisted by a hardware encryption accelerator. This is incorrect, it is a distractor.
Use of Elliptic Curve Encryption. Is incorrect this would use an asymmetric algorithm.
Who should DECIDE how a company should approach security and what security measures should be implemented?
Senior management
Data owner
Auditor
The information security specialist
They are responsible for security of the organization and the protection of its assets.
The following answers are incorrect because :
Data owner is incorrect as data owners should not decide as to what security measures should be applied.
Auditor is also incorrect as auditor cannot decide as to what security measures should be applied.
The information security specialist is also incorrect as they may have the technical knowledge of how security measures should be implemented and configured , but they should not be in a position of deciding what measures should be applied.
Reference : Shon Harris AIO v3 , Chapter-3: Security Management Practices , Page : 51.
When backing up an applications system's data, which of the following is a key question to be answered first?
When to make backups
Where to keep backups
What records to backup
How to store backups
It is critical that a determination be made of WHAT data is important and should be retained and protected. Without determining the data to be backed up, the potential for error increases. A record or file could be vital and yet not included in a backup routine. Alternatively, temporary or insignificant files could be included in a backup routine unnecessarily.
The following answers were incorrect:
When to make backups Although it is important to consider schedules for backups, this is done after the decisions are made of what should be included in the backup routine.
Where to keep backups The location of storing backup copies of data (Such as tapes, on-line backups, etc) should be made after determining what should be included in the backup routine and the method to store the backup.
How to store backups The backup methodology should be considered after determining what data should be included in the backup routine.
What is called an exception to the search warrant requirement that allows an officer to conduct a search without having the warrant in-hand if probable cause is present and destruction of the evidence is deemed imminent?
Evidence Circumstance Doctrine
Exigent Circumstance Doctrine
Evidence of Admissibility Doctrine
Exigent Probable Doctrine
An Exigent Circumstance is an unusual and time-sensitive circumstance that justifies conduct that might not be permissible or lawful in other circumstances.
For example, exigent circumstances may justify actions by law enforcement officers acting without a warrant such as a mortal danger to a young child. Examples of other exigent circumstances include protecting evidence or property from imminent destruction.
In US v Martinez, Justice Thomas of the United States Court of Appeal used these words:
"As a general rule, we define exigent circumstances as those circumstances that would cause a reasonable person to believe that entry was necessary to prevent physical harm to the officers or other persons, the destruction of relevant evidence, the escape of the suspect, or some other consequence improperly frustrating legitimate law enforcement efforts."
In Alvarado, Justice Blackburn of the Court of Appeals of Georgia referred to exigent circumstances in the context of a drug bust:
"The exigent circumstance doctrine provides that when probable cause has been established to believe that evidence will be removed or destroyed before a warrant can be obtained, a warrantless search and seizure can be justified. As many courts have noted, the need for the exigent circumstance doctrine is particularly compelling in narcotics cases, because contraband and records can be easily and quickly destroyed while a search is progressing. Police officers relying on this exception must demonstrate an objectively reasonable basis for deciding that immediate action is required."
All of the other answers were only detractors made up and not legal terms.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 313.
and
http://www.duhaime.org/LegalDictionary/E/ExigentCircumstances.aspx
Why does compiled code pose more of a security risk than interpreted code?
Because malicious code can be embedded in compiled code and be difficult to detect.
If the executed compiled code fails, there is a chance it will fail insecurely.
Because compilers are not reliable.
There is no risk difference between interpreted code and compiled code.
From a security standpoint, a compiled program is less desirable than an interpreted one because malicious code can be
resident somewhere in the compiled code, and it is difficult to detect in a very large program.
An Architecture where there are more than two execution domains or privilege levels is called:
Ring Architecture.
Ring Layering
Network Environment.
Security Models
In computer science, hierarchical protection domains, often called protection rings, are a mechanism to protect data and functionality from faults (fault tolerance) and malicious behavior (computer security). This approach is diametrically opposite to that of capability-based security.
Computer operating systems provide different levels of access to resources. A protection ring is one of two or more hierarchical levels or layers of privilege within the architecture of a computer system. This is generally hardware-enforced by some CPU architectures that provide different CPU modes at the hardware or microcode level. Rings are arranged in a hierarchy from most privileged (most trusted, usually numbered zero) to least privileged (least trusted, usually with the highest ring number). On most operating systems, Ring 0 is the level with the most privileges and interacts most directly with the physical hardware such as the CPU and memory.
Special gates between rings are provided to allow an outer ring to access an inner ring's resources in a predefined manner, as opposed to allowing arbitrary usage. Correctly gating access between rings can improve security by preventing programs from one ring or privilege level from misusing resources intended for programs in another. For example, spyware running as a user program in Ring 3 should be prevented from turning on a web camera without informing the user, since hardware access should be a Ring 1 function reserved for device drivers. Programs such as web browsers running in higher numbered rings must request access to the network, a resource restricted to a lower numbered ring.
Ring Architecture
All of the other answers are incorrect because they are detractors.
References:
OIG CBK Security Architecture and Models (page 311)
and
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_%28computer_security%29
What is the main purpose of Corporate Security Policy?
To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization
To communicate management's intentions in regards to information security
To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions
To provide a common framework for all development activities
A Corporate Security Policy is a high level document that indicates what are management`s intentions in regard to Information Security within the organization. It is high level in purpose, it does not give you details about specific products that would be use, specific steps, etc..
The organization’s requirements for access control should be defined and documented in its security policies. Access rules and rights for each user or group of users should be clearly stated in an access policy statement. The access control policy should minimally consider:
Statements of general security principles and their applicability to the organization
Security requirements of individual enterprise applications, systems, and services
Consistency between the access control and information classification policies of different systems and networks
Contractual obligations or regulatory compliance regarding protection of assets
Standards defining user access profiles for organizational roles
Details regarding the management of the access control system
As a Certified Information System Security Professional (CISSP) you would be involved directly in the drafting and coordination of security policies, standards and supporting guidelines, procedures, and baselines.
Guidance provided by the CISSP for technical security issues, and emerging threats are considered for the adoption of new policies. Activities such as interpretation of government regulations and industry trends and analysis of vendor solutions to include in the security architecture that advances the security of the organization are performed by the CISSP as well.
The following are incorrect answers:
To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization is bogus. You CANNOT transfer responsibility, you can only tranfer authority. Responsibility will also sit with upper management. The keyworks ALL and USERS is also an indication that it is the wrong choice.
To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions is also a bogus detractor. A step by step document is referred to as a procedure. It details how to accomplish a specific task.
To provide a common framework for all development activities is also an invalid choice. Security Policies are not restricted only to development activities.
Reference Used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1551-1565). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 9109-9112). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
Which of the following is not one of the three goals of Integrity addressed by the Clark-Wilson model?
Prevention of the modification of information by unauthorized users.
Prevention of the unauthorized or unintentional modification of information by authorized users.
Preservation of the internal and external consistency.
Prevention of the modification of information by authorized users.
There is no need to prevent modification from authorized users. They are authorized and allowed to make the changes. On top of this, it is also NOT one of the goal of Integrity within Clark-Wilson.
As it turns out, the Biba model addresses only the first of the three integrity goals which is Prevention of the modification of information by unauthorized users. Clark-Wilson addresses all three goals of integrity.
The Clark–Wilson model improves on Biba by focusing on integrity at the transaction level and addressing three major goals of integrity in a commercial environment. In addition to preventing changes by unauthorized subjects, Clark and Wilson realized that high-integrity systems would also have to prevent undesirable changes by authorized subjects and to ensure that the system continued to behave consistently. It also recognized that it would need to ensure that there is constant mediation between every subject and every object if such integrity was going to be maintained.
Integrity is addressed through the following three goals:
1. Prevention of the modification of information by unauthorized users.
2. Prevention of the unauthorized or unintentional modification of information by authorized users.
3. Preservation of the internal and external consistency.
The following reference(s) were used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 17689-17694). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 31.
Which of the following is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in real time to determine violations of system security policy that have taken place?
Intrusion Detection System
Compliance Validation System
Intrusion Management System (IMS)
Compliance Monitoring System
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a system that is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in order to determine if any violations of an organization's system security policy have taken place.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 48.
Which of the following usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources?
network-based IDS
host-based IDS
application-based IDS
firewall-based IDS
A network-based IDS usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 48.
The property of a system or a system resource being accessible and usable upon demand by an authorized system entity, according to performance specifications for the system is referred to as?
Confidentiality
Availability
Integrity
Reliability
An company security program must:
1) assure that systems and applications operate effectively and provide appropriate confidentiality, integrity, and availability;
2) protect informationcommensurate with the level of risk and magnitude ofharmresulting fromloss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification.
The property of a system or a system resource being accessible and usable upon demand by an authorized system entity, according to performance specifications for the system; i.e., a system is available if it provides services according to the system design whenever users request them.
The following are incorrect answers:
Confidentiality - The information requires protection from unauthorized disclosure and only the INTENDED recipient should have access to the meaning of the data either in storage or in transit.
Integrity - The information must be protected from unauthorized, unanticipated, or unintentional modification. This includes, but is not limited to:
Authenticity –A third party must be able to verify that the content of a message has not been changed in transit.
Non-repudiation – The origin or the receipt of a specific message must be verifiable by a third party.
Accountability - A security goal that generates the requirement for actions of an entity to be traced uniquely to that entity.
Reference used for this question:
RFC 2828
and
SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information Technology Systems, November 2001 (page 5).
Which of the following is the act of performing tests and evaluations to test a system's security level to see if it complies with the design specifications and security requirements?
Validation
Verification
Assessment
Accuracy
Verification vs. Validation:
Verification determines if the product accurately represents and meets the specifications. A product can be developed that does not match the original specifications. This step ensures that the specifications are properly met.
Validation determines if the product provides the necessary solution intended real-world problem. In large projects, it is easy to lose sight of overall goal. This exercise ensures that the main goal of the project is met.
From DITSCAP:
6.3.2. Phase 2, Verification. The Verification phase shall include activities to verify compliance of the system with previously agreed security requirements. For each life-cycle development activity, DoD Directive 5000.1 (reference (i)), there is a corresponding set of security activities, enclosure 3, that shall verify compliance with the security requirements and evaluate vulnerabilities.
6.3.3. Phase 3, Validation. The Validation phase shall include activities to evaluate the fully integrated system to validate system operation in a specified computing environment with an acceptable level of residual risk. Validation shall culminate in an approval to operate.
You must also be familiar with Verification and Validation for the purpose of the exam. A simple definition for Verification would be whether or not the developers followed the design specifications along with the security requirements. A simple definition for Validation would be whether or not the final product meets the end user needs and can be use for a specific purpose.
Wikipedia has an informal description that is currently written as: Validation can be expressed by the query "Are you building the right thing?" and Verification by "Are you building it right?
NOTE:
DITSCAP was replaced by DIACAP some time ago (2007). While DITSCAP had defined both a verification and a validation phase, the DIACAP only has a validation phase. It may not make a difference in the answer for the exam; however, DIACAP is the cornerstone policy of DOD C&A and IA efforts today. Be familiar with both terms just in case all of a sudden the exam becomes updated with the new term.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1106). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
http://iase.disa.mil/ditscap/DITSCAP.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Verification_and_validation
For the definition of "validation" in DIACAP, Click Here
Further sources for the phases in DIACAP, Click Here
At what stage of the applications development process should the security department become involved?
Prior to the implementation
Prior to systems testing
During unit testing
During requirements development
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?
network-based IDS
host-based IDS
application-based IDS
firewall-based IDS
This type of IDS is called a network-based IDS because monitors network traffic in real time.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 48.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a host-based intrusion detection system?
A HIDS does not consume large amounts of system resources
A HIDS can analyse system logs, processes and resources
A HIDS looks for unauthorized changes to the system
A HIDS can notify system administrators when unusual events are identified
A HIDS does not consume large amounts of system resources is the correct choice. HIDS can consume inordinate amounts of CPU and system resources in order to function effectively, especially during an event.
All the other answers are characteristics of HIDSes
A HIDS can:
scrutinize event logs, critical system files, and other auditable system resources;
look for unauthorized change or suspicious patterns of behavior or activity
can send alerts when unusual events are discovered
Network-based Intrusion Detection systems:
Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment.
Commonly will not reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment.
Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and does not monitor the traffic on that network segment.
Commonly reside on a host and and monitor the traffic on that specific host.
Network-based ID systems:
- Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment
- Usually consist of a network appliance with a Network Interface Card (NIC) that is operating in promiscuous mode and is intercepting and analyzing the network packets in real time
"A passive NIDS takes advantage of promiscuous mode access to the network, allowing it to gain visibility into every packet traversing the network segment. This allows the system to inspect packets and monitor sessions without impacting the network, performance, or the systems and applications utilizing the network."
NOTE FROM CLEMENT:
A discrete network is a synonym for a SINGLE network. Usually the sensor will monitor a single network segment, however there are IDS today that allow you to monitor multiple LAN's at the same time.
References used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 62.
and
Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Hal Tipton and Kevin Henry, Page 196
and
Additional information on IDS systems can be found here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_detection_system
What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?
It can be very invasive to the host operating system
Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only
Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption
They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS
The biggest drawback of HIDS, and the reason many organizations resist its use, is that it can be very invasive to the host operating system. HIDS must have the capability to monitor all processes and activities on the host system and this can sometimes interfere with normal system processing.
HIDS versus NIDS
A host-based IDS (HIDS) can be installed on individual workstations and/ or servers to watch for inappropriate or anomalous activity. HIDSs are usually used to make sure users do not delete system files, reconfigure important settings, or put the system at risk in any other way.
So, whereas the NIDS understands and monitors the network traffic, a HIDS’s universe is limited to the computer itself. A HIDS does not understand or review network traffic, and a NIDS does not “look in†and monitor a system’s activity. Each has its own job and stays out of the other’s way.
The ISC2 official study book defines an IDS as:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a technology that alerts organizations to adverse or unwanted activity. An IDS can be implemented as part of a network device, such as a router, switch, or firewall, or it can be a dedicated IDS device monitoring traffic as it traverses the network. When used in this way, it is referred to as a network IDS, or NIDS. IDS can also be used on individual host systems to monitor and report on file, disk, and process activity on that host. When used in this way it is referred to as a host-based IDS, or HIDS.
An IDS is informative by nature and provides real-time information when suspicious activities are identified. It is primarily a detective device and, acting in this traditional role, is not used to directly prevent the suspected attack.
What about IPS?
In contrast, an intrusion prevention system (IPS), is a technology that monitors activity like an IDS but will automatically take proactive preventative action if it detects unacceptable activity. An IPS permits a predetermined set of functions and actions to occur on a network or system; anything that is not permitted is considered unwanted activity and blocked. IPS is engineered specifically to respond in real time to an event at the system or network layer. By proactively enforcing policy, IPS can thwart not only attackers, but also authorized users attempting to perform an action that is not within policy. Fundamentally, IPS is considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS is considered network monitoring and audit technology.
The following answers were incorrect:
All of the other answer were advantages and not drawback of using HIDS
TIP FOR THE EXAM:
Be familiar with the differences that exists between an HIDS, NIDS, and IPS. Know that IDS's are mostly detective but IPS are preventive. IPS's are considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS's are considered network monitoring and audit technology.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 5817-5822). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Access Control ((ISC)2 Press), Domain1, Page 180-188 or on the kindle version look for Kindle Locations 3199-3203. Auerbach Publications.
Who should measure the effectiveness of Information System security related controls in an organization?
The local security specialist
The business manager
The systems auditor
The central security manager
It is the systems auditor that should lead the effort to ensure that the security controls are in place and effective. The audit would verify that the controls comply with polices, procedures, laws, and regulations where applicable. The findings would provide these to senior management.
The following answers are incorrect:
the local security specialist. Is incorrect because an independent review should take place by a third party. The security specialist might offer mitigation strategies but it is the auditor that would ensure the effectiveness of the controls
the business manager. Is incorrect because the business manager would be responsible that the controls are in place, but it is the auditor that would ensure the effectiveness of the controls.
the central security manager. Is incorrect because the central security manager would be responsible for implementing the controls, but it is the auditor that is responsibe for ensuring their effectiveness.
Who can best decide what are the adequate technical security controls in a computer-based application system in regards to the protection of the data being used, the criticality of the data, and it's sensitivity level ?
System Auditor
Data or Information Owner
System Manager
Data or Information user
The data or information owner also referred to as "Data Owner" would be the best person. That is the individual or officer who is ultimately responsible for the protection of the information and can therefore decide what are the adequate security controls according to the data sensitivity and data criticality. The auditor would be the best person to determine the adequacy of controls and whether or not they are working as expected by the owner.
The function of the auditor is to come around periodically and make sure you are doing what you are supposed to be doing. They ensure the correct controls are in place and are being maintained securely. The goal of the auditor is to make sure the organization complies with its own policies and the applicable laws and regulations.
Organizations can have internal auditors and/ or external auditors. The external auditors commonly work on behalf of a regulatory body to make sure compliance is being met. For example CobiT, which is a model that most information security auditors follow when evaluating a security program. While many security professionals fear and dread auditors, they can be valuable tools in ensuring the overall security of the organization. Their goal is to find the things you have missed and help you understand how to fix the problem.
The Official ISC2 Guide (OIG) says:
IT auditors determine whether users, owners, custodians, systems, and networks are in compliance with the security policies, procedures, standards, baselines, designs, architectures, management direction, and other requirements placed on systems. The auditors provide independent assurance to the management on the appropriateness of the security controls. The auditor examines the information systems and determines whether they are designed, configured, implemented, operated, and managed in a way ensuring that the organizational objectives are being achieved. The auditors provide top company management with an independent view of the controls and their effectiveness.
Example:
Bob is the head of payroll. He is therefore the individual with primary responsibility over the payroll database, and is therefore the information/data owner of the payroll database. In Bob's department, he has Sally and Richard working for him. Sally is responsible for making changes to the payroll database, for example if someone is hired or gets a raise. Richard is only responsible for printing paychecks. Given those roles, Sally requires both read and write access to the payroll database, but Richard requires only read access to it. Bob communicates these requirements to the system administrators (the "information/data custodians") and they set the file permissions for Sally's and Richard's user accounts so that Sally has read/write access, while Richard has only read access.
So in short Bob will determine what controls are required, what is the sensitivily and criticality of the Data. Bob will communicate this to the custodians who will implement the requirements on the systems/DB. The auditor would assess if the controls are in fact providing the level of security the Data Owner expects within the systems/DB. The auditor does not determine the sensitivity of the data or the crititicality of the data.
The other answers are not correct because:
A "system auditor" is never responsible for anything but auditing... not actually making control decisions but the auditor would be the best person to determine the adequacy of controls and then make recommendations.
A "system manager" is really just another name for a system administrator, which is actually an information custodian as explained above.
A "Data or information user" is responsible for implementing security controls on a day-to-day basis as they utilize the information, but not for determining what the controls should be or if they are adequate.
References:
Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition , Page 477
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Information Security Governance and Risk Management ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 294-298). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 3108-3114).
Information Security Glossary
Responsibility for use of information resources
In the process of gathering evidence from a computer attack, a system administrator took a series of actions which are listed below. Can you identify which one of these actions has compromised the whole evidence collection process?
Using a write blocker
Made a full-disk image
Created a message digest for log files
Displayed the contents of a folder
Displaying the directory contents of a folder can alter the last access time on each listed file.
Using a write blocker is wrong because using a write blocker ensure that you cannot modify the data on the host and it prevent the host from writing to its hard drives.
Made a full-disk image is wrong because making a full-disk image can preserve all data on a hard disk, including deleted files and file fragments.
Created a message digest for log files is wrong because creating a message digest for log files. A message digest is a cryptographic checksum that can demonstrate that the integrity of a file has not been compromised (e.g. changes to the content of a log file)
Domain: LEGAL, REGULATIONS, COMPLIANCE AND INVESTIGATIONS
References:
AIO 3rd Edition, page 783-784
NIST 800-61 Computer Security Incident Handling guide page 3-18 to 3-20
Which of the following are additional terms used to describe knowledge-based IDS and behavior-based IDS?
signature-based IDS and statistical anomaly-based IDS, respectively
signature-based IDS and dynamic anomaly-based IDS, respectively
anomaly-based IDS and statistical-based IDS, respectively
signature-based IDS and motion anomaly-based IDS, respectively.
The two current conceptual approaches to Intrusion Detection methodology are knowledge-based ID systems and behavior-based ID systems, sometimes referred to as signature-based ID and statistical anomaly-based ID, respectively.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 63.
Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?
audit trails.
access control lists.
security clearances
host-based authentication
To assist in Intrusion Detection you would review audit logs for access violations.
The following answers are incorrect:
access control lists. This is incorrect because access control lists determine who has access to what but do not detect intrusions.
security clearances. This is incorrect because security clearances determine who has access to what but do not detect intrusions.
host-based authentication. This is incorrect because host-based authentication determine who have been authenticated to the system but do not dectect intrusions.
Which of the following is most likely to be useful in detecting intrusions?
Access control lists
Security labels
Audit trails
Information security policies
If audit trails have been properly defined and implemented, they will record information that can assist in detecting intrusions.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4: Access Control (page 186).
The session layer provides a logical persistent connection between peer hosts. Which of the following is one of the modes used in the session layer to establish this connection?
Full duplex
Synchronous
Asynchronous
Half simplex
Layer 5 of the OSI model is the Session Layer. This layer provides a logical persistent connection between peer hosts. A session is analogous to a conversation that is necessary for applications to exchange information.
The session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and closing end-to-end connections, called sessions, between applications located at different network endpoints. Dialogue control management provided by the session layer includes full-duplex, half-duplex, and simplex communications. Session layer management also helps to ensure that multiple streams of data stay synchronized with each other, as in the case of multimedia applications like video conferencing, and assists with the prevention of application related data errors.
The session layer is responsible for creating, maintaining, and tearing down the session.
Three modes are offered:
(Full) Duplex: Both hosts can exchange information simultaneously, independent of each other.
Half Duplex: Hosts can exchange information, but only one host at a time.
Simplex: Only one host can send information to its peer. Information travels in one direction only.
Another aspect of performance that is worthy of some attention is the mode of operation of the network or connection. Obviously, whenever we connect together device A and device B, there must be some way for A to send to B and B to send to A. Many people don’t realize, however, that networking technologies can differ in terms of how these two directions of communication are handled. Depending on how the network is set up, and the characteristics of the technologies used, performance may be improved through the selection of performance-enhancing modes.
Basic Communication Modes of Operation
Let's begin with a look at the three basic modes of operation that can exist for any network connection, communications channel, or interface.
Simplex Operation
In simplex operation, a network cable or communications channel can only send information in one direction; it's a “one-way streetâ€. This may seem counter-intuitive: what's the point of communications that only travel in one direction? In fact, there are at least two different places where simplex operation is encountered in modern networking.
The first is when two distinct channels are used for communication: one transmits from A to B and the other from B to A. This is surprisingly common, even though not always obvious. For example, most if not all fiber optic communication is simplex, using one strand to send data in each direction. But this may not be obvious if the pair of fiber strands are combined into one cable.
Simplex operation is also used in special types of technologies, especially ones that are asymmetric. For example, one type of satellite Internet access sends data over the satellite only for downloads, while a regular dial-up modem is used for upload to the service provider. In this case, both the satellite link and the dial-up connection are operating in a simplex mode.
Half-Duplex Operation
Technologies that employ half-duplex operation are capable of sending information in both directions between two nodes, but only one direction or the other can be utilized at a time. This is a fairly common mode of operation when there is only a single network medium (cable, radio frequency and so forth) between devices.
While this term is often used to describe the behavior of a pair of devices, it can more generally refer to any number of connected devices that take turns transmitting. For example, in conventional Ethernet networks, any device can transmit, but only one may do so at a time. For this reason, regular (unswitched) Ethernet networks are often said to be “half-duplexâ€, even though it may seem strange to describe a LAN that way.
Full-Duplex Operation
In full-duplex operation, a connection between two devices is capable of sending data in both directions simultaneously. Full-duplex channels can be constructed either as a pair of simplex links (as described above) or using one channel designed to permit bidirectional simultaneous transmissions. A full-duplex link can only connect two devices, so many such links are required if multiple devices are to be connected together.
Note that the term “full-duplex†is somewhat redundant; “duplex†would suffice, but everyone still says “full-duplex†(likely, to differentiate this mode from half-duplex).
For a listing of protocols associated with Layer 5 of the OSI model, see below:
ADSP - AppleTalk Data Stream Protocol
ASP - AppleTalk Session Protocol
H.245 - Call Control Protocol for Multimedia Communication
ISO-SP
OSI session-layer protocol (X.225, ISO 8327)
iSNS - Internet Storage Name Service
The following are incorrect answers:
Synchronous and Asynchronous are not session layer modes.
Half simplex does not exist. By definition, simplex means that information travels one way only, so half-simplex is a oxymoron.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 5603-5636). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
http://www.tcpipguide.com/free/t_SimplexFullDuplexandHalfDuplexOperation.htm
and
http://www.wisegeek.com/what-is-a-session-layer.htm
Which of the following enables the person responsible for contingency planning to focus risk management efforts and resources in a prioritized manner only on the identified risks?
Risk assessment
Residual risks
Security controls
Business units
The risk assessment is critical because it enables the person responsible for contingency planning to focus risk management efforts and resources in a prioritized manner only on the identified risks. The risk management process includes the risk assessment and determination of suitable technical, management, and operational security controls based on the level of threat the risk imposes. Business units should be included in this process.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems, December 2001 (page 7).
Virus scanning and content inspection of SMIME encrypted e-mail without doing any further processing is:
Not possible
Only possible with key recovery scheme of all user keys
It is possible only if X509 Version 3 certificates are used
It is possible only by "brute force" decryption
Content security measures presumes that the content is available in cleartext on the central mail server.
Encrypted emails have to be decrypted before it can be filtered (e.g. to detect viruses), so you need the decryption key on the central "crypto mail server".
There are several ways for such key management, e.g. by message or key recovery methods. However, that would certainly require further processing in order to achieve such goal.
What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?
Data fiddling
Data diddling
Salami techniques
Trojan horses
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page 644.
In biometric identification systems, the parts of the body conveniently available for identification are:
neck and mouth
hands, face, and eyes
feet and hair
voice and neck
Today implementation of fast, accurate, reliable, and user-acceptable biometric identification systems are already under way. Because most identity authentication takes place when a people are fully clothed (neck to feet and wrists), the parts of the body conveniently available for this purpose are hands, face, and eyes.
From: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1, Page 7.
Like the Kerberos protocol, SESAME is also subject to which of the following?
timeslot replay
password guessing
symmetric key guessing
asymmetric key guessing
Sesame is an authentication and access control protocol, that also supports communication confidentiality and integrity. It provides public key based authentication along with the Kerberos style authentication, that uses symmetric key cryptography. Sesame supports the Kerberos protocol and adds some security extensions like public key based authentication and an ECMA-style Privilege Attribute Service.
The users under SESAME can authenticate using either symmetric encryption as in Kerberos or Public Key authentication. When using Symmetric Key authentication as in Kerberos, SESAME is also vulnerable to password guessing just like Kerberos would be. The Symmetric key being used is based on the password used by the user when he logged on the system. If the user has a simple password it could be guessed or compromise. Even thou Kerberos or SESAME may be use, there is still a need to have strong password discipline.
The Basic Mechanism in Sesame for strong authentication is as follow:
The user sends a request for authentication to the Authentication Server as in Kerberos, except that SESAME is making use of public key cryptography for authentication where the client will present his digital certificate and the request will be signed using a digital signature. The signature is communicated to the authentication server through the preauthentication fields. Upon receipt of this request, the authentication server will verifies the certificate, then validate the signature, and if all is fine the AS will issue a ticket granting ticket (TGT) as in Kerberos. This TGT will be use to communicate with the privilage attribute server (PAS) when access to a resource is needed.
Users may authenticate using either a public key pair or a conventional (symmetric) key. If public key cryptography is used, public key data is transported in preauthentication data fields to help establish identity.
Kerberos uses tickets for authenticating subjects to objects and SESAME uses Privileged Attribute Certificates (PAC), which contain the subject’s identity, access capabilities for the object, access time period, and lifetime of the PAC. The PAC is digitally signed so that the object can validate that it came from the trusted authentication server, which is referred to as the privilege attribute server (PAS). The PAS holds a similar role as the KDC within Kerberos. After a user successfully authenticates to the authentication service (AS), he is presented with a token to give to the PAS. The PAS then creates a PAC for the user to present to the resource he is trying to access.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://srg.cs.uiuc.edu/Security/nephilim/Internal/SESAME.txt
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 43.
Who first described the DoD multilevel military security policy in abstract, formal terms?
David Bell and Leonard LaPadula
Rivest, Shamir and Adleman
Whitfield Diffie and Martin Hellman
David Clark and David Wilson
It was David Bell and Leonard LaPadula who, in 1973, first described the DoD multilevel military security policy in abstract, formal terms. The Bell-LaPadula is a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model concerned with confidentiality. Rivest, Shamir and Adleman (RSA) developed the RSA encryption algorithm. Whitfield Diffie and Martin Hellman published the Diffie-Hellman key agreement algorithm in 1976. David Clark and David Wilson developed the Clark-Wilson integrity model, more appropriate for security in commercial activities.
Source: RUSSEL, Deborah & GANGEMI, G.T. Sr., Computer Security Basics, O'Reilly, July 1992 (pages 78,109).
In Discretionary Access Control the subject has authority, within certain limitations,
but he is not permitted to specify what objects can be accessible and so we need to get an independent third party to specify what objects can be accessible.
to specify what objects can be accessible.
to specify on a aggregate basis without understanding what objects can be accessible.
to specify in full detail what objects can be accessible.
With Discretionary Access Control, the subject has authority, within certain limitations, to specify what objects can be accessible.
For example, access control lists can be used. This type of access control is used in local, dynamic situations where the subjects must have the discretion to specify what resources certain users are permitted to access.
When a user, within certain limitations, has the right to alter the access control to certain objects, this is termed as user-directed discretionary access control. In some instances, a hybrid approach is used, which combines the features of user-based and identity-based discretionary access control.
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 33.
and
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide 5th Edition, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2010, Chapter 4: Access Control (page 210-211).
Which type of password token involves time synchronization?
Static password tokens
Synchronous dynamic password tokens
Asynchronous dynamic password tokens
Challenge-response tokens
Synchronous dynamic password tokens generate a new unique password value at fixed time intervals, so the server and token need to be synchronized for the password to be accepted.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 37).
Also check out: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 4: Access Control (page 136).
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) standard pertaining to perimeter protection states that critical areas should be illuminated up to?
Illiminated at nine feet high with at least three foot-candles
Illiminated at eight feet high with at least three foot-candles
Illiminated at eight feet high with at least two foot-candles
Illuminated at nine feet high with at least two foot-candles
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) standard pertaining to perimeter protection states that critical areas should be illuminated eight feet high with at least two foot-candles.
It can also be referred to as illuminating to a height of eight feet, with a BRIGHTNESS of two foot-candles.
One footcandle ≈ 10.764 lux. The footcandle (or lumen per square foot) is a non-SI unit of illuminance. Like the BTU, it is obsolete but it is still in fairly common use in the United States, particularly in construction-related engineering and in building codes. Because lux and footcandles are different units of the same quantity, it is perfectly valid to convert footcandles to lux and vice versa.
The name "footcandle" conveys "the illuminance cast on a surface by a one-candela source one foot away." As natural as this sounds, this style of name is now frowned upon, because the dimensional formula for the unit is not foot • candela, but lumens per square foot.
Some sources do however note that the "lux" can be thought of as a "metre-candle" (i.e. the illuminance cast on a surface by a one-candela source one meter away). A source that is farther away casts less illumination than one that is close, so one lux is less illuminance than one footcandle. Since illuminance follows the inverse-square law, and since one foot = 0.3048 m, one lux = 0.30482 footcandle ≈ 1/10.764 footcandle.
TIPS FROM CLEMENT:
Illuminance (light level) – The amount of light, measured in foot-candles (US unit), that falls n a surface, either horizontal or vertical.
Parking lots lighting needs to be an average of 2 foot candles; uniformity of not more than 3:1, no area less than 1 fc.
All illuminance measurements are to be made on the horizontal plane with a certified light meter calibrated to NIST standards using traceable light sources.
The CISSP Exam Cram 2 from Michael Gregg says:
Lighting is a commonly used form of perimeter protection.
Some studies have found that up to 80% of criminal acts at businesses and shopping centers happen in adjacent parking lots. Therefore, it's easy to see why lighting can be such an important concern.
Outside lighting discourages prowlers and thieves.
The National Institute of Standards and Technologies (NIST) states that, for effective perimeter control, buildings should be illuminated 8 feet high, with 2-foot candle power.
Reference used for this question:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page 325.
and
Shon's AIO v5 pg 459
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foot-candle
How often should a Business Continuity Plan be reviewed?
At least once a month
At least every six months
At least once a year
At least Quarterly
As stated in SP 800-34 Rev. 1:
To be effective, the plan must be maintained in a ready state that accurately reflects system requirements, procedures, organizational structure, and policies. During the Operation/Maintenance phase of the SDLC, information systems undergo frequent changes because of shifting business needs, technology upgrades, or new internal or external policies.
As a general rule, the plan should be reviewed for accuracy and completeness at an organization-defined frequency (at least once a year for the purpose of the exam) or whenever significant changes occur to any element of the plan. Certain elements, such as contact lists, will require more frequent reviews.
Remember, there could be two good answers as specified above. Either once a year or whenever significant changes occur to the plan. You will of course get only one of the two presented within you exam.
Reference(s) used for this question:
NIST SP 800-34 Revision 1
In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
Be a function within the information systems function of an organization.
Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance.
Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO.
Be independent but report to the Information Systems function.
In order to offer more independence and get more attention from management, an IT security function should be independent from IT and report directly to the CEO. Having it report to a specialized business unit (e.g. legal) is not recommended as it promotes a low technology view of the function and leads people to believe that it is someone else's problem.
Source: HARE, Chris, Security management Practices CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, april 1999.
Which of the following would best describe the difference between white-box testing and black-box testing?
White-box testing is performed by an independent programmer team.
Black-box testing uses the bottom-up approach.
White-box testing examines the program internal logical structure.
Black-box testing involves the business units
Black-box testing observes the system external behavior, while white-box testing is a detailed exam of a logical path, checking the possible conditions.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 299).
Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems uses behavioral characteristics of a system’s operation or network traffic to draw conclusions on whether the traffic represents a risk to the network or host?
Network-based ID systems.
Anomaly Detection.
Host-based ID systems.
Signature Analysis.
There are two basic IDS analysis methods: pattern matching (also called signature analysis) and anomaly detection.
Anomaly detection uses behavioral characteristics of a system’s operation or network traffic to draw conclusions on whether the traffic represents a risk to the network or host. Anomalies may include but are not limited to:
Multiple failed log-on attempts
Users logging in at strange hours
Unexplained changes to system clocks
Unusual error messages
The following are incorrect answers:
Network-based ID Systems (NIDS) are usually incorporated into the network in a passive architecture, taking advantage of promiscuous mode access to the network. This means that it has visibility into every packet traversing the network segment. This allows the system to inspect packets and monitor sessions without impacting the network or the systems and applications utilizing the network.
Host-based ID Systems (HIDS) is the implementation of IDS capabilities at the host level. Its most significant difference from NIDS is that related processes are limited to the boundaries of a single-host system. However, this presents advantages in effectively detecting objectionable activities because the IDS process is running directly on the host system, not just observing it from the network. This offers unfettered access to system logs, processes, system information, and device information, and virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption. The level of integration represented by HIDS increases the level of visibility and control at the disposal of the HIDS application.
Signature Analysis Some of the first IDS products used signature analysis as their detection method and simply looked for known characteristics of an attack (such as specific packet sequences or text in the data stream) to produce an alert if that pattern was detected. For example, an attacker manipulating an FTP server may use a tool that sends a specially constructed packet. If that particular packet pattern is known, it can be represented in the form of a signature that IDS can then compare to incoming packets. Pattern-based IDS will have a database of hundreds, if not thousands, of signatures that are compared to traffic streams. As new attack signatures are produced, the system is updated, much like antivirus solutions. There are drawbacks to pattern-based IDS. Most importantly, signatures can only exist for known attacks. If a new or different attack vector is used, it will not match a known signature and, thus, slip past the IDS. Additionally, if an attacker knows that the IDS is present, he or she can alter his or her methods to avoid detection. Changing packets and data streams, even slightly, from known signatures can cause an IDS to miss the attack. As with some antivirus systems, the IDS is only as good as the latest signature database on the system.
For additional information on Intrusion Detection Systems - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_detection_system
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 3623-3625, 3649-3654, 3666-3686). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
Which of the following determines that the product developed meets the projects goals?
verification
validation
concurrence
accuracy
Software Development Verification vs. Validation:
Verification determines if the product accurately represents and meets the design specifications given to the developers. A product can be developed that does not match the original specifications. This step ensures that the specifications are properly met and closely followed by the development team.
Validation determines if the product provides the necessary solution intended real-world problem. It validates whether or not the final product is what the user expected in the first place and whether or not it solve the problem it intended to solve. In large projects, it is easy to lose sight of overall goal. This exercise ensures that the main goal of the project is met.
From DITSCAP:
6.3.2. Phase 2, Verification. The Verification phase shall include activities to verify compliance of the system with previously agreed security requirements. For each life-cycle development activity, DoD Directive 5000.1 (reference (i)), there is a corresponding set of security activities, enclosure 3, that shall verify compliance with the security requirements and evaluate vulnerabilities.
6.3.3. Phase 3, Validation. The Validation phase shall include activities to evaluate the fully integrated system to validate system operation in a specified computing environment with an acceptable level of residual risk. Validation shall culminate in an approval to operate.
NOTE:
DIACAP has replace DITSCAP but the definition above are still valid and applicable for the purpose of the exam.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1106). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
http://iase.disa.mil/ditscap/DITSCAP.html
What prevents a process from accessing another process' data?
Memory segmentation
Process isolation
The reference monitor
Data hiding
Process isolation is where each process has its own distinct address space for its application code and data. In this way, it is possible to prevent each process from accessing another process' data. This prevents data leakage, or modification to the data while it is in memory. Memory segmentation is a virtual memory management mechanism. The reference monitor is an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects. Data hiding, also known as information hiding, is a mechanism that makes information available at one processing level is not available at another level.
Source: HARE, Chris, Security Architecture and Models, Area 6 CISSP Open Study Guide, January 2002.
What is one disadvantage of content-dependent protection of information?
It increases processing overhead.
It requires additional password entry.
It exposes the system to data locking.
It limits the user's individual address space.
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in protecting data's confidentiality?
Install a firewall
Implement encryption
Identify which information is sensitive
Review all user access rights
In order to protect the confidentiality of the data.
The following answers are incorrect because :
Install a firewall is incorrect as this would come after the information has been identified for sensitivity levels.
Implement encryption is also incorrect as this is one of the mechanisms to protect the data once it has been identified.
Review all user access rights is also incorrect as this is also a protection mechanism for the identified information.
Reference : Shon Harris AIO v3 , Chapter-4 : Access Control , Page : 126
Which of the following biometric devices has the lowest user acceptance level?
Retina Scan
Fingerprint scan
Hand geometry
Signature recognition
According to the cited reference, of the given options, the Retina scan has the lowest user acceptance level as it is needed for the user to get his eye close to a device and it is not user friendly and very intrusive.
However, retina scan is the most precise with about one error per 10 millions usage.
Look at the 2 tables below. If necessary right click on the image and save it on your desktop for a larger view or visit the web site directly at https://sites.google.com/site/biometricsecuritysolutions/crossover-accuracy .
Biometric Comparison Chart
Biometric Aspect Descriptions
Reference(s) used for this question:
RHODES, Keith A., Chief Technologist, United States General Accounting Office, National Preparedness, Technologies to Secure Federal Buildings, April 2002 (page 10).
and
https://sites.google.com/site/biometricsecuritysolutions/crossover-accuracy
Which of the following is NOT part of the Kerberos authentication protocol?
Symmetric key cryptography
Authentication service (AS)
Principals
Public Key
There is no such component within kerberos environment. Kerberos uses only symmetric encryption and does not make use of any public key component.
The other answers are incorrect because :
Symmetric key cryptography is a part of Kerberos as the KDC holds all the users' and services' secret keys.
Authentication service (AS) : KDC (Key Distribution Center) provides an authentication service
Principals : Key Distribution Center provides services to principals , which can be users , applications or network services.
References: Shon Harris , AIO v3 , Chapter - 4: Access Control , Pages : 152-155.
Which of the following statements pertaining to access control is false?
Users should only access data on a need-to-know basis.
If access is not explicitly denied, it should be implicitly allowed.
Access rights should be granted based on the level of trust a company has on a subject.
Roles can be an efficient way to assign rights to a type of user who performs certain tasks.
Access control mechanisms should default to no access to provide the necessary level of security and ensure that no security holes go unnoticed. If access is not explicitly allowed, it should be implicitly denied.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4: Access Control (page 143).
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
It utilizes public key cryptography.
It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
It depends upon symmetric ciphers.
It is a second party authentication system.
Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). Kerberos is a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980's by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user's secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
The following answers are incorrect:
It utilizes public key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers).
It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text. Is incorrect because the passwords are not exchanged but used for encryption and decryption of the keys.
It is a second party authentication system. Is incorrect because Kerberos is a third party authentication system, you authenticate to the third party (Kerberos) and not the system you are accessing.
References:
MIT http://web.mit.edu/kerberos/
Wikipedi http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kerberos_%28protocol%29
OIG CBK Access Control (pages 181 - 184)
AIOv3 Access Control (pages 151 - 155)
Controls like guards and general steps to maintain building security, securing of server rooms or laptops, the protection of cables, and usage of magnetic switches on doors and windows are some of the examples of:
Administrative controls
Logical controls
Technical controls
Physical controls
Controls like guards and general steps to maintain building security, securing of server rooms or laptops, the protection of cables, and usage of magnetic switches on doors and windows are all examples of Physical Security.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 33.
Which of the following is not a logical control when implementing logical access security?
access profiles.
userids.
employee badges.
passwords.
Employee badges are considered Physical so would not be a logical control.
The following answers are incorrect:
userids. Is incorrect because userids are a type of logical control.
access profiles. Is incorrect because access profiles are a type of logical control.
passwords. Is incorrect because passwords are a type of logical control.
The Computer Security Policy Model the Orange Book is based on is which of the following?
Bell-LaPadula
Data Encryption Standard
Kerberos
Tempest
The Computer Security Policy Model Orange Book is based is the Bell-LaPadula Model. Orange Book Glossary.
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a cryptographic algorithm. National Information Security Glossary.
TEMPEST is related to limiting the electromagnetic emanations from electronic equipment.
Which of the following attacks could capture network user passwords?
Data diddling
Sniffing
IP Spoofing
Smurfing
A network sniffer captures a copy every packet that traverses the network segment the sniffer is connect to.
Sniffers are typically devices that can collect information from a communication medium, such as a network. These devices can range from specialized equipment to basic workstations with customized software.
A sniffer can collect information about most, if not all, attributes of the communication. The most common method of sniffing is to plug a sniffer into an existing network device like a hub or switch. A hub (which is designed to relay all traffic passing through it to all of its ports) will automatically begin sending all the traffic on that network segment to the sniffing device. On the other hand, a switch (which is designed to limit what traffic gets sent to which port) will have to be specially configured to send all traffic to the port where the sniffer is plugged in.
Another method for sniffing is to use a network tap—a device that literally splits a network transmission into two identical streams; one going to the original network destination and the other going to the sniffing device. Each of these methods has its advantages and disadvantages, including cost, feasibility, and the desire to maintain the secrecy of the sniffing activity.
The packets captured by sniffer are decoded and then displayed by the sniffer. Therfore, if the username/password are contained in a packet or packets traversing the segment the sniffer is connected to, it will capture and display that information (and any other information on that segment it can see).
Of course, if the information is encrypted via a VPN, SSL, TLS, or similar technology, the information is still captured and displayed, but it is in an unreadable format.
The following answers are incorrect:
Data diddling involves changing data before, as it is enterred into a computer, or after it is extracted.
Spoofing is forging an address and inserting it into a packet to disguise the origin of the communication - or causing a system to respond to the wrong address.
Smurfing would refer to the smurf attack, where an attacker sends spoofed packets to the broadcast address on a gateway in order to cause a denial of service.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA Review manual 2014 Page number 321
Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP 3rd edition Page Number 153
Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:
Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.
Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.
Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.
Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.
Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior. It provides guidance about lost and crime prevention through proper facility contruction and environmental components and procedures.
CPTED concepts were developed in the 1960s. They have been expanded upon and have matured as our environments and crime types have evolved. CPTED has been used not just to develop corporate physical security programs, but also for large-scale activities such as development of neighborhoods, towns, and cities. It addresses landscaping, entrances, facility and neighborhood layouts, lighting, road placement, and traffic circulation patterns. It looks at microenvironments, such as offices and rest-rooms, and macroenvironments, like campuses and cities.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 435). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
CPTED Guide Book
Controls to keep password sniffing attacks from compromising computer systems include which of the following?
static and recurring passwords.
encryption and recurring passwords.
one-time passwords and encryption.
static and one-time passwords.
To minimize the chance of passwords being captured one-time passwords would prevent a password sniffing attack because once used it is no longer valid. Encryption will also minimize these types of attacks.
The following answers are correct:
static and recurring passwords. This is incorrect because if there is no encryption then someone password sniffing would be able to capture the password much easier if it never changed.
encryption and recurring passwords. This is incorrect because while encryption helps, recurring passwords do nothing to minimize the risk of passwords being captured.
static and one-time passwords. This is incorrect because while one-time passwords will prevent these types of attacks, static passwords do nothing to minimize the risk of passwords being captured.
A network-based vulnerability assessment is a type of test also referred to as:
An active vulnerability assessment.
A routing vulnerability assessment.
A host-based vulnerability assessment.
A passive vulnerability assessment.
A network-based vulnerability assessment tool/system either re-enacts system attacks, noting and recording responses to the attacks, or probes different targets to infer weaknesses from their responses.
Since the assessment is actively attacking or scanning targeted systems, network-based vulnerability assessment systems are also called active vulnerability systems.
There are mostly two main types of test:
PASSIVE: You don't send any packet or interact with the remote target. You make use of public database and other techniques to gather information about your target.
ACTIVE: You do send packets to your target, you attempt to stimulate response which will help you in gathering information about hosts that are alive, services runnings, port state, and more.
See example below of both types of attacks:
Eavesdropping and sniffing data as it passes over a network are considered passive attacks because the attacker is not affecting the protocol, algorithm, key, message, or any parts of the encryption system. Passive attacks are hard to detect, so in most cases methods are put in place to try to prevent them rather than to detect and stop them.
Altering messages , modifying system files, and masquerading as another individual are acts that are considered active attacks because the attacker is actually doing something instead of sitting back and gathering data. Passive attacks are usually used to gain information prior to carrying out an active attack.
IMPORTANT NOTE:
On the commercial vendors will sometimes use different names for different types of scans. However, the exam is product agnostic. They do not use vendor terms but general terms. Experience could trick you into selecting the wrong choice sometimes. See feedback from Jason below:
"I am a system security analyst. It is my daily duty to perform system vulnerability analysis. We use Nessus and Retina (among other tools) to perform our network based vulnerability scanning. Both commercially available tools refer to a network based vulnerability scan as a "credentialed" scan. Without credentials, the scan tool cannot login to the system being scanned, and as such will only receive a port scan to see what ports are open and exploitable"
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 865). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
DUPUIS, Clement, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, march 2002 (page 97).
The primary service provided by Kerberos is which of the following?
non-repudiation
confidentiality
authentication
authorization
The Answer: authentication. Kerberos is an authentication service. It can use single-factor or multi-factor authentication methods.
The following answers are incorrect:
non-repudiation. Since Kerberos deals primarily with symmetric cryptography, it does not help with non-repudiation.
confidentiality. Once the client is authenticated by Kerberos and obtains its session key and ticket, it may use them to assure confidentiality of its communication with a server; however, that is not a Kerberos service as such.
authorization. Although Kerberos tickets may include some authorization information, the meaning of the authorization fields is not standardized in the Kerberos specifications, and authorization is not a primary Kerberos service.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
ISC2 OIG,2007 p. 179-184
Shon Harris AIO v.3 152-155
The type of discretionary access control (DAC) that is based on an individual's identity is also called:
Identity-based Access control
Rule-based Access control
Non-Discretionary Access Control
Lattice-based Access control
An identity-based access control is a type of Discretionary Access Control (DAC) that is based on an individual's identity.
DAC is good for low level security environment. The owner of the file decides who has access to the file.
If a user creates a file, he is the owner of that file. An identifier for this user is placed in the file header and/or in an access control matrix within the operating system.
Ownership might also be granted to a specific individual. For example, a manager for a certain department might be made the owner of the files and resources within her department. A system that uses discretionary access control (DAC) enables the owner of the resource to specify which subjects can access specific resources.
This model is called discretionary because the control of access is based on the discretion of the owner. Many times department managers, or business unit managers , are the owners of the data within their specific department. Being the owner, they can specify who should have access and who should not.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 220). McGraw-Hill . Kindle Edition.
Which of the following would be used to implement Mandatory Access Control (MAC)?
Clark-Wilson Access Control
Role-based access control
Lattice-based access control
User dictated access control
The lattice is a mechanism use to implement Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Under Mandatory Access Control (MAC) you have:
Mandatory Access Control
Under Non Discretionary Access Control (NDAC) you have:
Rule-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Under Discretionary Access Control (DAC) you have:
Discretionary Access Control
The Lattice Based Access Control is a type of access control used to implement other access control method. A lattice is an ordered list of elements that has a least upper bound and a most lower bound. The lattice can be used for MAC, DAC, Integrity level, File Permission, and more
For example in the case of MAC, if we look at common government classifications, we have the following:
TOP SECRET
SECRET -----------------------I am the user at secret
CONFIDENTIAL
SENSITIVE BUT UNCLASSIFIED
UNCLASSIFIED
If you look at the diagram above where I am a user at SECRET it means that I can access document at lower classification but not document at TOP SECRET. The lattice is a list of ORDERED ELEMENT, in this case the ordered elements are classification levels. My least upper bound is SECRET and my most lower bound is UNCLASSIFIED.
However the lattice could also be used for Integrity Levels such as:
VERY HIGH
HIGH
MEDIUM ----------I am a user, process, application at the medium level
LOW
VERY LOW
In the case of of Integrity levels you have to think about TRUST. Of course if I take for example the the VISTA operating system which is based on Biba then Integrity Levels would be used. As a user having access to the system I cannot tell a process running with administrative privilege what to do. Else any users on the system could take control of the system by getting highly privilege process to do things on their behalf. So no read down would be allowed in this case and this is an example of the Biba model.
Last but not least the lattice could be use for file permissions:
RWX
RW ---------User at this level
R
If I am a user with READ and WRITE (RW) access privilege then I cannot execute the file because I do not have execute permission which is the X under linux and UNIX.
Many people confuse the Lattice Model and many books says MAC = LATTICE, however the lattice can be use for other purposes.
There is also Role Based Access Control (RBAC) that exists out there. It COULD be used to simulate MAC but it is not MAC as it does not make use of Label on objects indicating sensitivity and categories. MAC also require a clearance that dominates the object.
You can get more info about RBAC at:http://csrc.nist.gov/groups/SNS/rbac/faq.html#03
Also note that many book uses the same acronym for Role Based Access Control and Rule Based Access Control which is RBAC, this can be confusing.
The proper way of writing the acronym for Rule Based Access Control is RuBAC, unfortunately it is not commonly used.
References:
There is a great article on technet that talks about the lattice in VISTA:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/steriley/archive/2006/07/21/442870.aspx
also see:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 33).
and
http://www.microsoft-watch.com/content/vista/gaging_vistas_integrity.html
Which of the following reviews system and event logs to detect attacks on the host and determine if the attack was successful?
host-based IDS
firewall-based IDS
bastion-based IDS
server-based IDS
A host-based IDS can review the system and event logs in order to detect an attack on the host and to determine if the attack was successful.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 48.
What is the primary goal of setting up a honeypot?
To lure hackers into attacking unused systems
To entrap and track down possible hackers
To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network
To know when certain types of attacks are in progress and to learn about attack techniques so the network can be fortified.
The primary purpose of a honeypot is to study the attack methods of an attacker for the purposes of understanding their methods and improving defenses.
"To lure hackers into attacking unused systems" is incorrect. Honeypots can serve as decoys but their primary purpose is to study the behaviors of attackers.
"To entrap and track down possible hackers" is incorrect. There are a host of legal issues around enticement vs entrapment but a good general rule is that entrapment is generally prohibited and evidence gathered in a scenario that could be considered as "entrapping" an attacker would not be admissible in a court of law.
"To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network" is incorrect. While a honeypot is a sort of sacrificial lamb and may attract attacks that might have been directed against production systems, its real purpose is to study the methods of attackers with the goals of better understanding and improving network defenses.
References
AIO3, p. 213
Which of the following would NOT violate the Due Diligence concept?
Security policy being outdated
Data owners not laying out the foundation of data protection
Network administrator not taking mandatory two-week vacation as planned
Latest security patches for servers being installed as per the Patch Management process
To be effective a patch management program must be in place (due diligence) and detailed procedures would specify how and when the patches are applied properly (Due Care). Remember, the question asked for NOT a violation of Due Diligence, in this case, applying patches demonstrates due care and the patch management process in place demonstrates due diligence.
Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks the company faces. A company practices by developing and implementing security policies, procedures, and standards. Detecting risks would be based on standards such as ISO 2700, Best Practices, and other published standards such as NIST standards for example.
Due Diligence is understanding the current threats and risks. Due diligence is practiced by activities that make sure that the protection mechanisms are continually maintained and operational where risks are constantly being evaluated and reviewed. The security policy being outdated would be an example of violating the due diligence concept.
Due Care is implementing countermeasures to provide protection from those threats. Due care is when the necessary steps to help protect the company and its resources from possible risks that have been identifed. If the information owner does not lay out the foundation of data protection (doing something about it) and ensure that the directives are being enforced (actually being done and kept at an acceptable level), this would violate the due care concept.
If a company does not practice due care and due diligence pertaining to the security of its assets, it can be legally charged with negligence and held accountable for any ramifications of that negligence. Liability is usually established based on Due Diligence and Due Care or the lack of either.
A good way to remember this is using the first letter of both words within Due Diligence (DD) and Due Care (DC).
Due Diligence = Due Detect
Steps you take to identify risks based on best practices and standards.
Due Care = Due Correct.
Action you take to bring the risk level down to an acceptable level and maintaining that level over time.
The Following answer were wrong:
Security policy being outdated:
While having and enforcing a security policy is the right thing to do (due care), if it is outdated, you are not doing it the right way (due diligence). This questions violates due diligence and not due care.
Data owners not laying out the foundation for data protection:
Data owners are not recognizing the "right thing" to do. They don't have a security policy.
Network administrator not taking mandatory two week vacation:
The two week vacation is the "right thing" to do, but not taking the vacation violates due diligence (not doing the right thing the right way)
Reference(s) used for this question
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One, Version 5, Chapter 3, pg 110
Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS) ?
signature-based IDS
statistical anomaly-based IDS
event-based IDS
inferent-based IDS
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 49.
A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which of the basic security functions?
avoidance
deterrence
prevention
detection
By reviewing system logs you can detect events that have occured.
The following answers are incorrect:
avoidance. This is incorrect, avoidance is a distractor. By reviewing system logs you have not avoided anything.
deterrence. This is incorrect because system logs are a history of past events. You cannot deter something that has already occurred.
prevention. This is incorrect because system logs are a history of past events. You cannot prevent something that has already occurred.
What is also known as 10Base5?
Thinnet
Thicknet
ARCnet
UTP
Thicknet is a coaxial cable with segments of up to 500 meters, also known as 10Base5. Thinnet is a coaxial cable with segments of up to 185 meters. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) has three variations: 10 Mbps (10BaseT), 100 Mbps (100BaseT) or 1 Gbps (1000BaseT). ARCnet is a LAN media access method.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 108).
Which of the following statements pertaining to Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is false?
It can be used for voice
it can be used for data
It carries various sizes of packets
It can be used for video
ATM is an example of a fast packet-switching network that can be used for either data, voice or video, but packets are of fixed size.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 455).
The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 2, what type of data is contained within the IP datagram?
TCP.
ICMP.
UDP.
IGMP.
If the protocol field has a value of 2 then it would indicate it was IGMP.
The following answers are incorrect:
TCP. Is incorrect because the value for a TCP protocol would be 6.
UDP. Is incorrect because the value for an UDP protocol would be 17.
ICMP. Is incorrect because the value for an ICMP protocol would be 1.
Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP Model ensures error-free delivery and packet sequencing?
Internet layer
Network access layer
Host-to-host
Application layer
This layer of the DoD Model is also sometimes called Transport in some books but the proper name is Host-to-Host as per the RFC document.
The host-to-host layer provides for reliable end-to-end communications, ensures the data's error-free delivery, handles the data's packet sequencing, and maintains the data's integrity.
It is comparable to the transport layer of the OSI model.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_protocol_suite
and
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc786900%28v=ws.10%29.aspx
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 85).
Which of the following statements pertaining to link encryption is false?
It encrypts all the data along a specific communication path.
It provides protection against packet sniffers and eavesdroppers.
Information stays encrypted from one end of its journey to the other.
User information, header, trailers, addresses and routing data that are part of the packets are encrypted.
When using link encryption, packets have to be decrypted at each hop and encrypted again.
Information staying encrypted from one end of its journey to the other is a characteristic of end-to-end encryption, not link encryption.
Link Encryption vs. End-to-End Encryption
Link encryption encrypts the entire packet, including headers and trailers, and has to be decrypted at each hop.
End-to-end encryption does not encrypt the IP Protocol headers, and therefore does not need to be decrypted at each hop.
Which of the following is less likely to be used today in creating a Virtual Private Network?
L2TP
PPTP
IPSec
L2F
L2F (Layer 2 Forwarding) provides no authentication or encryption. It is a Protocol that supports the creation of secure virtual private dial-up networks over the Internet.
At one point L2F was merged with PPTP to produce L2TP to be used on networks and not only on dial up links.
IPSec is now considered the best VPN solution for IP environments.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 8: Cryptography (page 507).
Which of the following ports does NOT normally need to be open for a mail server to operate?
Port 110
Port 25
Port 119
Port 143
Port 119 is normally used for the Network News Transfer Protocol. It is thus not need for a mail server, which would normally listen to ports 25 (SMTP), 110 (POP3) and 143 (IMAP).
Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 1: Understanding Firewalls.
What is a decrease in amplitude as a signal propagates along a transmission medium best known as?
Crosstalk
Noise
Delay distortion
Attenuation
Attenuation is the loss of signal strength as it travels. The longer a cable, the more at tenuation occurs, which causes the signal carrying the data to deteriorate. This is why standards include suggested cable-run lengths. If a networking cable is too long, attenuation may occur. Basically, the data are in the form of electrons, and these electrons have to “swim†through a copper wire. However, this is more like swimming upstream, because there is a lot of resistance on the electrons working in this media. After a certain distance, the electrons start to slow down and their encoding format loses form. If the form gets too degraded, the receiving system cannot interpret them any longer. If a network administrator needs to run a cable longer than its recommended segment length, she needs to insert a repeater or some type of device that will amplify the signal and ensure it gets to its destination in the right encoding format.
Attenuation can also be caused by cable breaks and malfunctions. This is why cables should be tested. If a cable is suspected of attenuation problems, cable testers can inject signals into the cable and read the results at the end of the cable.
The following answers are incorrect:
Crosstalk - Crosstalk is one example of noise where unwanted electrical coupling between adjacent lines causes the signal in one wire to be picked up by the signal in an adjacent wire.
Noise - Noise is also a signal degradation but it refers to a large amount of electrical fluctuation that can interfere with the interpretation of the signal by the receiver.
Delay distortion - Delay distortion can result in a misinterpretation of a signal that results from transmitting a digital signal with varying frequency components. The various components arrive at the receiver with varying delays.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 265
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 229 &
CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 561
What is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 1.544 Mbps on a T1 facility?
DS-0
DS-1
DS-2
DS-3
Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 1.544 Mbps on a T1 facility. DS-0 is the framing specification used in transmitting digital signals over a single 64 Kbps channel over a T1 facility. DS-3 is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 44.736 Mbps on a T3 facility. DS-2 is not a defined framing specification.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 114).
What protocol is used on the Local Area Network (LAN) to obtain an IP address from it's known MAC address?
Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)
Address resolution protocol (ARP)
Data link layer
Network address translation (NAT)
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) sends out a packet including a MAC address and a request to be informed of the IP address that should be assigned to that MAC.
Diskless workstations do not have a full operating system but have just enough code to know how to boot up and broadcast for an IP address, and they may have a pointer to the server that holds the operating system. The diskless workstation knows its hardware address, so it broadcasts this information so that a listening server can assign it the correct IP address.
As with ARP, Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) frames go to all systems on the subnet, but only the RARP server responds. Once the RARP server receives this request, it looks in its table to see which IP address matches the broadcast hardware address. The server then sends a message that contains its IP address back to the requesting computer. The system now has an IP address and can function on the network.
The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) was created after RARP to enhance the functionality that RARP provides for diskless workstations. The diskless workstation can receive its IP address, the name server address for future name resolutions, and the default gateway address from the BOOTP server. BOOTP usually provides more functionality to diskless workstations than does RARP.
The evolution of this protocol has unfolded as follows: RARP evolved into BOOTP, which evolved into DHCP.
The following are incorrect answers:
NAT is a tool that is used for masking true IP addresses by employing internal addresses.
ARP does the opposite of RARP, it finds the MAC address that maps with an existing IP address.
Data Link layer The Data Link layer is not a protocol; it is represented at layer 2 of the OSI model. In the TCP/IP model, the Data Link and Physical layers are combined into the Network Access layer, which is sometimes called the Link layer or the Network Interface layer.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Telecommunications and Network Security, Page 584-585 and also 598. For Kindle users see Kindle Locations 12348-12357. McGraw-Hill.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 87).
Which of the following media is MOST resistant to tapping?
microwave.
twisted pair.
coaxial cable.
fiber optic.
Fiber Optic is the most resistant to tapping because Fiber Optic uses a light to transmit the signal. While there are some technologies that will allow to monitor the line passively, it is very difficult to tap into without detection sot this technology would be the MOST resistent to tapping.
The following answers are in correct:
microwave. Is incorrect because microwave transmissions can be intercepted if in the path of the broadcast without detection.
twisted pair. Is incorrect because it is easy to tap into a twisted pair line.
coaxial cable. Is incorrect because it is easy to tap into a coaxial cable line.
A group of independent servers, which are managed as a single system, that provides higher availability, easier manageability, and greater scalability is:
server cluster
client cluster
guest cluster
host cluster
A server cluster is a group of independent servers, which are managed as a single system, that provides higher availability, easier manageability, and greater scalability.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 67.
In which layer of the OSI Model are connection-oriented protocols located in the TCP/IP suite of protocols?
Transport layer
Application layer
Physical layer
Network layer
Connection-oriented protocols such as TCP provides reliability.
It is the responsibility of such protocols in the transport layer to ensure every byte is accounted for. The network layer does not provide reliability. It only privides the best route to get the traffic to the final destination address.
For your exam you should know the information below about OSI model:
The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) is a conceptual model that characterizes and standardizes the internal functions of a communication system by partitioning it into abstraction layers. The model is a product of the Open Systems Interconnection project at the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), maintained by the identification ISO/IEC 7498-1.
The model groups communication functions into seven logical layers. A layer serves the layer above it and is served by the layer below it. For example, a layer that provides error-free communications across a network provides the path needed by applications above it, while it calls the next lower layer to send and receive packets that make up the contents of that path. Two instances at one layer are connected by a horizontal.
OSI Model
Image source: http://www.petri.co.il/images/osi_model.JPG
PHYSICAL LAYER
The physical layer, the lowest layer of the OSI model, is concerned with the transmission and reception of the unstructured raw bit stream over a physical medium. It describes the electrical/optical, mechanical, and functional interfaces to the physical medium, and carries the signals for all of the higher layers. It provides:
Data encoding: modifies the simple digital signal pattern (1s and 0s) used by the PC to better accommodate the characteristics of the physical medium, and to aid in bit and frame synchronization. It determines:
What signal state represents a binary 1
How the receiving station knows when a "bit-time" starts
How the receiving station delimits a frame
DATA LINK LAYER
The data link layer provides error-free transfer of data frames from one node to another over the physical layer, allowing layers above it to assume virtually error-free transmission over the link. To do this, the data link layer provides:
Link establishment and termination: establishes and terminates the logical link between two nodes.
Frame traffic control: tells the transmitting node to "back-off" when no frame buffers are available.
Frame sequencing: transmits/receives frames sequentially.
Frame acknowledgment: provides/expects frame acknowledgments. Detects and recovers from errors that occur in the physical layer by retransmitting non-acknowledged frames and handling duplicate frame receipt.
Frame delimiting: creates and recognizes frame boundaries.
Frame error checking: checks received frames for integrity.
Media access management: determines when the node "has the right" to use the physical medium.
NETWORK LAYER
The network layer controls the operation of the subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. It provides:
Routing: routes frames among networks.
Subnet traffic control: routers (network layer intermediate systems) can instruct a sending station to "throttle back" its frame transmission when the router's buffer fills up.
Frame fragmentation: if it determines that a downstream router's maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is less than the frame size, a router can fragment a frame for transmission and re-assembly at the destination station.
Logical-physical address mapping: translates logical addresses, or names, into physical addresses.
Subnet usage accounting: has accounting functions to keep track of frames forwarded by subnet intermediate systems, to produce billing information.
Communications Subnet
The network layer software must build headers so that the network layer software residing in the subnet intermediate systems can recognize them and use them to route data to the destination address.
This layer relieves the upper layers of the need to know anything about the data transmission and intermediate switching technologies used to connect systems. It establishes, maintains and terminates connections across the intervening communications facility (one or several intermediate systems in the communication subnet).
In the network layer and the layers below, peer protocols exist between a node and its immediate neighbor, but the neighbor may be a node through which data is routed, not the destination station. The source and destination stations may be separated by many intermediate systems.
TRANSPORT LAYER
The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered error-free, in sequence, and with no losses or duplications. It relieves the higher layer protocols from any concern with the transfer of data between them and their peers.
The size and complexity of a transport protocol depends on the type of service it can get from the network layer. For a reliable network layer with virtual circuit capability, a minimal transport layer is required. If the network layer is unreliable and/or only supports datagrams, the transport protocol should include extensive error detection and recovery.
The transport layer provides:
Message segmentation: accepts a message from the (session) layer above it, splits the message into smaller units (if not already small enough), and passes the smaller units down to the network layer. The transport layer at the destination station reassembles the message.
Message acknowledgment: provides reliable end-to-end message delivery with acknowledgments.
Message traffic control: tells the transmitting station to "back-off" when no message buffers are available.
Session multiplexing: multiplexes several message streams, or sessions onto one logical link and keeps track of which messages belong to which sessions (see session layer).
Typically, the transport layer can accept relatively large messages, but there are strict message size limits imposed by the network (or lower) layer. Consequently, the transport layer must break up the messages into smaller units, or frames, prepending a header to each frame.
The transport layer header information must then include control information, such as message start and message end flags, to enable the transport layer on the other end to recognize message boundaries. In addition, if the lower layers do not maintain sequence, the transport header must contain sequence information to enable the transport layer on the receiving end to get the pieces back together in the right order before handing the received message up to the layer above.
End-to-end layers
Unlike the lower "subnet" layers whose protocol is between immediately adjacent nodes, the transport layer and the layers above are true "source to destination" or end-to-end layers, and are not concerned with the details of the underlying communications facility. Transport layer software (and software above it) on the source station carries on a conversation with similar software on the destination station by using message headers and control messages.
SESSION LAYER
The session layer allows session establishment between processes running on different stations. It provides:
Session establishment, maintenance and termination: allows two application processes on different machines to establish, use and terminate a connection, called a session.
Session support: performs the functions that allow these processes to communicate over the network, performing security, name recognition, logging, and so on.
PRESENTATION LAYER
The presentation layer formats the data to be presented to the application layer. It can be viewed as the translator for the network. This layer may translate data from a format used by the application layer into a common format at the sending station, then translate the common format to a format known to the application layer at the receiving station.
The presentation layer provides:
Character code translation: for example, ASCII to EBCDIC.
Data conversion: bit order, CR-CR/LF, integer-floating point, and so on.
Data compression: reduces the number of bits that need to be transmitted on the network.
Data encryption: encrypt data for security purposes. For example, password encryption.
APPLICATION LAYER
The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access network services. This layer contains a variety of commonly needed functions:
Resource sharing and device redirection
Remote file access
Remote printer access
Inter-process communication
Network management
Directory services
Electronic messaging (such as mail)
Network virtual terminals
The following were incorrect answers:
Application Layer - The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access network services.
Network layer - The network layer controls the operation of the subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors.
Physical Layer - The physical layer, the lowest layer of the OSI model, is concerned with the transmission and reception of the unstructured raw bit stream over a physical medium. It describes the electrical/optical, mechanical, and functional interfaces to the physical medium, and carries the signals for all of the higher layers.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 260
and
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 287
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tcp_protocol
Which of the following are suitable protocols for securing VPN connections at the lower layers of the OSI model?
S/MIME and SSH
TLS and SSL
IPsec and L2TP
PKCS#10 and X.509
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or shortcoming of packet filtering gateways?
The source and destination addresses, protocols, and ports contained in the IP packet header are the only information that is available to the router in making a decision whether or not to permit traffic access to an internal network.
They don't protect against IP or DNS address spoofing.
They do not support strong user authentication.
They are appropriate for medium-risk environment.
Packet filtering firewalls use routers with packet filtering rules to grant or deny access based on source address, destination address, and port.
They offer minimum security but at a very low cost, and can be an appropriate choice for a low-risk environment.
Source: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1), 2000, CRC Press, Chapter 3, Secured Connections to External Networks (page 60).
Which protocol of the TCP/IP suite addresses reliable data transport?
Transmission control protocol (TCP)
User datagram protocol (UDP)
Internet protocol (IP)
Internet control message protocol (ICMP)
TCP provides a full-duplex, connection-oriented, reliable, virtual circuit. It handles the sequencing and retransmission of lost packets.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 85).
Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP model controls the communication flow between hosts?
Internet layer
Host-to-host transport layer
Application layer
Network access layer
Whereas the host-to-host layer (equivalent to the OSI's transport layer) provides end-to-end data delivery service, flow control, to the application layer.
The four layers in the DoD model, from top to bottom, are:
The Application Layer contains protocols that implement user-level functions, such as mail delivery, file transfer and remote login.
The Host-to-Host Layer handles connection rendez vous, flow control, retransmission of lost data, and other generic data flow management between hosts. The mutually exclusive TCP and UDP protocols are this layer's most important members.
The Internet Layer is responsible for delivering data across a series of different physical networks that interconnect a source and destination machine. Routing protocols are most closely associated with this layer, as is the IP Protocol, the Internet's fundamental protocol.
The Network Access Layer is responsible for delivering data over the particular hardware media in use. Different protocols are selected from this layer, depending on the type of physical network
The OSI model organizes communication services into seven groups called layers. The layers are as follows:
Layer 7, The Application Layer: The application layer serves as a window for users and application processes to access network services. It handles issues such as network transparency, resource allocation, etc. This layer is not an application in itself, although some applications may perform application layer functions.
Layer 6, The Presentation Layer: The presentation layer serves as the data translator for a network. It is usually a part of an operating system and converts incoming and outgoing data from one presentation format to another. This layer is also known as syntax layer.
Layer 5, The Session Layer: The session layer establishes a communication session between processes running on different communication entities in a network and can support a message-mode data transfer. It deals with session and connection coordination.
Layer 4, The Transport Layer: The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered in the order in which they are sent and that there is no loss or duplication. It ensures complete data transfer. This layer provides an additional connection below the Session layer and assists with managing some data flow control between hosts. Data is divided into packets on the sending node, and the receiving node's Transport layer reassembles the message from packets. This layer is also responsible for error checking to guarantee error-free data delivery, and requests a retransmission if necessary. It is also responsible for sending acknowledgments of successful transmissions back to the sending host. A number of protocols run at the Transport layer, including TCP, UDP, Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX), and NWLink.
Layer 3, The Network Layer: The network layer controls the operation of the subnet. It determines the physical path that data takes on the basis of network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. The network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets.
Layer 2, The Data-Link Layer: The data-link layer is responsible for error free transfer of data frames. This layer provides synchronization for the physical layer. ARP and RARP would be found at this layer.
Layer 1, The Physical Layer: The physical layer is responsible for packaging and transmitting data on the physical media. This layer conveys the bit stream through a network at the electrical and mechanical level.
See a great flash animation on the subject at:
http://www.maris.com/content/applets/flash/comp/fa0301.swf
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 85).
Also: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 344).
Who is responsible for implementing user clearances in computer-based information systems at the B3 level of the TCSEC rating ?
Security administrators
Operators
Data owners
Data custodians
Security administrator functions include user-oriented activities such as setting user clearances, setting initial password, setting other security characteristics for new users or changing security profiles for existing users. Data owners have the ultimate responsibility for protecting data, thus determining proper user access rights to data.
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
Which of the following are required for Life-Cycle Assurance?
System Architecture and Design specification.
Security Testing and Covert Channel Analysis.
Security Testing and Trusted distribution.
Configuration Management and Trusted Facility Management.
Security testing and trusted distribution are required for Life-Cycle Assurance.
The following answers are incorrect:
System Architecture and Design specification. Is incorrect because System Architecture is not requried for Life-Cycle Assurance.
Security Testing and Covert Channel Analysis. Is incorrect because Covert Channel Analysis is not requried for Life-Cycle Assurance.
Configuration Management and Trusted Facility Management. Is incorrect because Trusted Facility Management. is not requried for Life-Cycle Assurance.
Memory management in TCSEC levels B3 and A1 operating systems may utilize "data hiding". What does this mean?
System functions are layered, and none of the functions in a given layer can access data outside that layer.
Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes.
Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory.
It is a form of strong encryption cipher.
Data Hiding is protecting data so that it is only available to higher levels this is done and is also performed by layering, when the software in each layer maintains its own global data and does not directly reference data outside its layers.
The following answers are incorrect:
Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes. Is incorrect because this does not offer data hiding.
Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory. This is incorrect, the security kernel would be responsible for this.
It is a form of strong encryption cipher. Is incorrect because this does not conform to the definition of data hiding.
Which of the following would MOST likely ensure that a system development project meets business objectives?
Development and tests are run by different individuals
User involvement in system specification and acceptance
Development of a project plan identifying all development activities
Strict deadlines and budgets
Effective user involvement is the most critical factor in ensuring that the application meets business objectives.
A great way of getting early input from the user community is by using Prototyping. The prototyping method was formally introduced in the early 1980s to combat the perceived weaknesses of the waterfall model with regard to the speed of development. The objective is to build a simplified version (prototype) of the application, release it for review, and use the feedback from the users’ review to build a second, better version.
This is repeated until the users are satisfied with the product. t is a four-step process:
initial concept,
design and implement initial prototype,
refine prototype until acceptable, and
complete and release final version.
There is also the Modified Prototype Model (MPM. This is a form of prototyping that is ideal for Web application development. It allows for the basic functionality of a desired system or component to be formally deployed in a quick time frame. The maintenance phase is set to begin after the deployment. The goal is to have the process be flexible enough so the application is not based on the state of the organization at any given time. As the organization grows and the environment changes, the application evolves with it, rather than being frozen in time.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 12101-12108 and 12099-12101). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 296).
Whose role is it to assign classification level to information?
Security Administrator
User
Owner
Auditor
The Data/Information Owner is ultimately responsible for the protection of the data. It is the Data/Information Owner that decides upon the classifications of that data they are responsible for.
The data owner decides upon the classification of the data he is responsible for and alters that classification if the business need arises.
The following answers are incorrect:
Security Administrator. Is incorrect because this individual is responsible for ensuring that the access right granted are correct and support the polices and directives that the Data/Information Owner defines.
User. Is Incorrect because the user uses/access the data according to how the Data/Information Owner defined their access.
Auditor. Is incorrect because the Auditor is responsible for ensuring that the access levels are appropriate. The Auditor would verify that the Owner classified the data properly.
References:
CISSP All In One Third Edition, Shon Harris, Page 121
Which of the following refers to the data left on the media after the media has been erased?
remanence
recovery
sticky bits
semi-hidden
Actually the term "remanence" comes from electromagnetism, the study of the electromagnetics. Originally referred to (and still does in that field of study) the magnetic flux that remains in a magnetic circuit after an applied magnetomotive force has been removed. Absolutely no way a candidate will see anywhere near that much detail on any similar CISSP question, but having read this, a candidate won't be likely to forget it either.
It is becoming increasingly commonplace for people to buy used computer equipment, such as a hard drive, or router, and find information on the device left there by the previous owner; information they thought had been deleted. This is a classic example of data remanence: the remains of partial or even the entire data set of digital information. Normally, this refers to the data that remain on media after they are written over or degaussed. Data remanence is most common in storage systems but can also occur in memory.
Specialized hardware devices known as degaussers can be used to erase data saved to magnetic media. The measure of the amount of energy needed to reduce the magnetic field on the media to zero is known as coercivity.
It is important to make sure that the coercivity of the degausser is of sufficient strength to meet object reuse requirements when erasing data. If a degausser is used with insufficient coercivity, then a remanence of the data will exist. Remanence is the measure of the existing magnetic field on the media; it is the residue that remains after an object is degaussed or written over.
Data is still recoverable even when the remanence is small. While data remanence exists, there is no assurance of safe object reuse.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 4207-4210). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 19694-19699). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
Configuration Management controls what?
Auditing of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.
Control of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.
Changes in the configuration access to the Trusted Computing Base.
Auditing and controlling any changes to the Trusted Computing Base.
All of these are components of Configuration Management.
The following answers are incorrect:
Auditing of changes to the Trusted Computing Base. Is incorrect because it refers only to auditing the changes, but nothing about controlling them.
Control of changes to the Trusted Computing Base. Is incorrect because it refers only to controlling the changes, but nothing about ensuring the changes will not lead to a weakness or fault in the system.
Changes in the configuration access to the Trusted Computing Base. Is incorrect because this does not refer to controlling the changes or ensuring the changes will not lead to a weakness or fault in the system.
Which of the following is NOT true concerning Application Control?
It limits end users use of applications in such a way that only particular screens are visible.
Only specific records can be requested through the application controls
Particular usage of the application can be recorded for audit purposes
It is non-transparent to the endpoint applications so changes are needed to the applications and databases involved
Source: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 2, Auerbach.
Which of the following backup method must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used?
Full Backup Method.
Incremental backup method.
Supplemental backup method.
Tape backup method.
A Full Backup must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 69.
And: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (pages 617-619).
Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?
Pipelining
Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)
Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)
Scalar processors
Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) uses instructions that perform many operations per instruction. It was based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle. Therefore, by packing more operations into an instruction, the number of fetches could be reduced. Pipelining involves overlapping the steps of different instructions to increase the performance in a computer. Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC) involve simpler instructions that require fewer clock cycles to execute. Scalar processors are processors that execute one instruction at a time.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architectures and Models (page 188).
Which type of attack would a competitive intelligence attack best classify as?
Business attack
Intelligence attack
Financial attack
Grudge attack
Business attacks concern information loss through competitive intelligence gathering and computer-related attacks. These attacks can be very costly due the loss of trade secrets and reputation.
Intelligence attacks are aimed at sensitive military and law enforcement files containing military data and investigation reports.
Financial attacks are concerned with frauds to banks and large corporations.
Grudge attacks are targeted at individuals and companies who have done something that the attacker doesn't like.
The CISSP for Dummies book has nice coverage of the different types of attacks, here is an extract:
Terrorism Attacks
Terrorism exists at many levels on the Internet. In April 2001, during a period of tense relations between China and the U.S. (resulting from the crash landing of a U.S. Navy reconnaissance plane on Hainan Island), Chinese hackers ( cyberterrorists ) launched a major effort to disrupt critical U.S. infrastructure, which included U.S. government and military systems.
Following the terrorist attacks against the U.S. on September 11, 2001, the general public became painfully aware of the extent of terrorism on the Internet. Terrorist organizations and cells are using online capabilities to coordinate attacks, transfer funds, harm international commerce, disrupt critical systems, disseminate propaganda, and gain useful information about developing techniques and instruments of terror, including nuclear , biological, and chemical weapons.
Military and intelligence attacks
Military and intelligence attacks are perpetrated by criminals, traitors, or foreign intelligence agents seeking classified law enforcement or military information. Such attacks may also be carried out by governments during times of war and conflict.
Financial attacks
Banks, large corporations, and e-commerce sites are the targets of financial attacks, all of which are motivated by greed. Financial attacks may seek to steal or embezzle funds, gain access to online financial information, extort individuals or businesses, or obtain the personal credit card numbers of customers.
Business attacks
Businesses are becoming the targets of more and more computer and Internet attacks. These attacks include competitive intelligence gathering, denial of service, and other computer- related attacks. Businesses are often targeted for several reasons including
Lack of expertise: Despite heightened security awareness, a shortage of qualified security professionals still exists, particularly in private enterprise.
Lack of resources: Businesses often lack the resources to prevent, or even detect, attacks against their systems.
Lack of reporting or prosecution : Because of public relations concerns and the inability to prosecute computer criminals due to either a lack of evidence or a lack of properly handled evidence, the majority of business attacks still go unreported.
The cost to businesses can be significant, including loss of trade secrets or proprietary information, loss of revenue, and loss of reputation.
Grudge attacks
Grudge attacks are targeted at individuals or businesses and are motivated by a desire to take revenge against a person or organization. A disgruntled employee, for example, may steal trade secrets, delete valuable data, or plant a logic bomb in a critical system or application.
Fortunately, these attacks (at least in the case of a disgruntled employee) can be easier to prevent or prosecute than many other types of attacks because:
The attacker is often known to the victim.
The attack has a visible impact that produces a viable evidence trail.
Most businesses (already sensitive to the possibility of wrongful termination suits ) have well-established termination procedures
“Fun†attacks
“Fun†attacks are perpetrated by thrill seekers and script kiddies who are motivated by curiosity or excitement. Although these attackers may not intend to do any harm or use any of the information that they access, they’re still dangerous and their activities are still illegal.
These attacks can also be relatively easy to detect and prosecute. Because the perpetrators are often script kiddies or otherwise inexperienced hackers, they may not know how to cover their tracks effectively.
Also, because no real harm is normally done nor intended against the system, it may be tempting (although ill advised) for a business to prosecute the individual and put a positive public relations spin on the incident. You’ve seen the film at 11: “We quickly detected the attack, prevented any harm to our network, and prosecuted the responsible individual; our security is unbreakable !†Such action, however, will likely motivate others to launch a more serious and concerted grudge attack against the business.
Many computer criminals in this category only seek notoriety. Although it’s one thing to brag to a small circle of friends about defacing a public Web site, the wily hacker who appears on CNN reaches the next level of hacker celebrity-dom. These twisted individuals want to be caught to revel in their 15 minutes of fame.
References:
ANDRESS, Mandy, Exam Cram CISSP, Coriolis, 2001, Chapter 10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 187)
and
CISSP Professional Study Guide by James Michael Stewart, Ed Tittel, Mike Chapple, page 607-609
and
CISSP for Dummies, Miller L. H. and Gregory P. H. ISBN: 0470537914, page 309-311
To be admissible in court, computer evidence must be which of the following?
Relevant
Decrypted
Edited
Incriminating
Before any evidence can be admissible in court, the evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence. This holds true for computer evidence as well.
While there are no absolute means to ensure that evidence will be allowed and helpful in a court of law, information security professionals should understand the basic rules of evidence. Evidence should be relevant, authentic, accurate, complete, and convincing. Evidence gathering should emphasize these criteria.
As stated in CISSP for Dummies:
Because computer-generated evidence can sometimes be easily manipulated, altered , or tampered with, and because it’s not easily and commonly understood, this type of evidence is usually considered suspect in a court of law. In order to be admissible, evidence must be
Relevant: It must tend to prove or disprove facts that are relevant and material to the case.
Reliable: It must be reasonably proven that what is presented as evidence is what was originally collected and that the evidence itself is reliable. This is accomplished, in part, through proper evidence handling and the chain of custody. (We discuss this in the upcoming section
“Chain of custody and the evidence life cycle.â€)
Legally permissible: It must be obtained through legal means. Evidence that’s not legally permissible may include evidence obtained through the following means:
Illegal search and seizure: Law enforcement personnel must obtain a prior court order; however, non-law enforcement personnel, such as a supervisor or system administrator, may be able to conduct an authorized search under some circumstances.
Illegal wiretaps or phone taps: Anyone conducting wiretaps or phone taps must obtain a prior court order.
Entrapment or enticement: Entrapment encourages someone to commit a crime that the individual may have had no intention of committing. Conversely, enticement lures someone toward certain evidence (a honey pot, if you will) after that individual has already committed a crime. Enticement is not necessarily illegal but does raise certain ethical arguments and may not be admissible in court.
Coercion: Coerced testimony or confessions are not legally permissible.
Unauthorized or improper monitoring: Active monitoring must be properly authorized and conducted in a standard manner; users must be notified that they may be subject to monitoring.
The following answers are incorrect:
decrypted. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence.
edited. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence. Edited evidence violates the rules of evidence.
incriminating. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence.
Reference(s) used for this question:
CISSP STudy Guide (Conrad, Misenar, Feldman) Elsevier. 2012. Page 423
and
Mc Graw Hill, Shon Harris CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , Pages 1051-1056
and
CISSP for Dummies , Peter Gregory
Which of the following backup methods is primarily run when time and tape space permits, and is used for the system archive or baselined tape sets?
full backup method.
incremental backup method.
differential backup method.
tape backup method.
The Full Backup Method is primarily run when time and tape space permits, and is used for the system archive or baselined tape sets.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 69.
What is the PRIMARY reason to maintain the chain of custody on evidence that has been collected?
To ensure that no evidence is lost.
To ensure that all possible evidence is gathered.
To ensure that it will be admissible in court
To ensure that incidents were handled with due care and due diligence.
This is the PRIMARY reason for the chain of custody of evidence. Evidence must be controlled every step of the way. If it is not, the evidence can be tampered with and ruled inadmissable. The Chain of Custody will include a detailed record of:
Who obtained the evidence
What was the evidence
Where and when the evidence was obtained
Who secured the evidence
Who had control or possession of the evidence
The following answers are incorrect because :
To ensure that no evidence is lost is incorrect as it is not the PRIMARY reason.
To ensure that all possible evidence is gathered is also incorrect as it is not the PRIMARY reason.
To ensure that incidents were handled with due care and due diligence is also incorrect as it is also not the PRIMARY reason.
The chain of custody is a history that shows how evidence was collected, analyzed, transported, and preserved in order to establish that it is sufficiently trustworthy to be presented as evidence in court. Because electronic evidence can be easily modified, a clearly defined chain of custody demonstrates that the evidence is trustworthy which would make it admissible in court.
Reference : Shon Harris AIO v3 , Chapter-10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics , Page : 727
Which of the following statements pertaining to disaster recovery is incorrect?
A recovery team's primary task is to get the pre-defined critical business functions at the alternate backup processing site.
A salvage team's task is to ensure that the primary site returns to normal processing conditions.
The disaster recovery plan should include how the company will return from the alternate site to the primary site.
When returning to the primary site, the most critical applications should be brought back first.
It's interesting to note that the steps to resume normal processing operations will be different than the steps in the recovery plan; that is, the least critical work should be brought back first to the primary site.
My explanation:
at the point where the primary site is ready to receive operations again, less critical systems should be brought back first because one has to make sure that everything will be running smoothly at the primary site before returning critical systems, which are already operating normally at the recovery site.
This will limit the possible interruption of processing to a minimum for most critical systems, thus making it the best option.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 291).
Which of the following statements regarding an off-site information processing facility is TRUE?
It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the primary processing site.
It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational.
It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found.
Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive.
It is very important that the offsite has the same restrictions in order to avoide misuse.
The following answers are incorrect because:
It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational is incorrect as the offsite is also subject to the same disaster as of the primary site.
It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found is also incorrect as it should not be easily identified to prevent intentional sabotage.
Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive is also incorrect as it should be like its primary site.
Reference : Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 5: Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (page 265).
For which areas of the enterprise are business continuity plans required?
All areas of the enterprise.
The financial and information processing areas of the enterprise.
The operating areas of the enterprise.
The marketing, finance, and information processing areas.
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is not defined as a preparation that facilitates:
the rapid recovery of mission-critical business operations
the continuation of critical business functions
the monitoring of threat activity for adjustment of technical controls
the reduction of the impact of a disaster
Although important, The monitoring of threat activity for adjustment of technical controls is not facilitated by a Business Continuity Planning
The following answers are incorrect:
All of the other choices are facilitated by a BCP:
the continuation of critical business functions
the rapid recovery of mission-critical business operations
the reduction of the impact of a disaster
Which virus category has the capability of changing its own code, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software?
Stealth viruses
Polymorphic viruses
Trojan horses
Logic bombs
A polymorphic virus has the capability of changing its own code, enabling it to have many different variants, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software. The particularity of a stealth virus is that it tries to hide its presence after infecting a system. A Trojan horse is a set of unauthorized instructions that are added to or replacing a legitimate program. A logic bomb is a set of instructions that is initiated when a specific event occurs.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 11: Application and System Development (page 786).
Java is not:
Object-oriented.
Distributed.
Architecture Specific.
Multithreaded.
JAVA was developed so that the same program could be executed on multiple hardware and operating system platforms, it is not Architecture Specific.
The following answers are incorrect:
Object-oriented. Is not correct because JAVA is object-oriented. It should use the object-oriented programming methodology.
Distributed. Is incorrect because JAVA was developed to be able to be distrubuted, run on multiple computer systems over a network.
Multithreaded. Is incorrect because JAVA is multi-threaded that is calls to subroutines as is the case with object-oriented programming.
A virus is a program that can replicate itself on a system but not necessarily spread itself by network connections.
Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?
IP spoofing
Password sniffing
Data diddling
Denial of service (DOS)
It refers to the alteration of the existing data , most often seen before it is entered into an application.This type of crime is extremely common and can be prevented by using appropriate access controls and proper segregation of duties. It will more likely be perpetrated by insiders, who have access to data before it is processed.
The other answers are incorrect because :
IP Spoofing is not correct as the questions asks about the crime associated with the insiders. Spoofing is generally accomplished from the outside.
Password sniffing is also not the BEST answer as it requires a lot of technical knowledge in understanding the encryption and decryption process.
Denial of service (DOS) is also incorrect as most Denial of service attacks occur over the internet.
Reference : Shon Harris , AIO v3 , Chapter-10 : Law , Investigation & Ethics , Page : 758-760.
Which of the following technologies is a target of XSS or CSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks?
Web Applications
Intrusion Detection Systems
Firewalls
DNS Servers
XSS or Cross-Site Scripting is a threat to web applications where malicious code is placed on a website that attacks the use using their existing authenticated session status.
Cross-Site Scripting attacks are a type of injection problem, in which malicious scripts are injected into the otherwise benign and trusted web sites. Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks occur when an attacker uses a web application to send malicious code, generally in the form of a browser side script, to a different end user. Flaws that allow these attacks to succeed are quite widespread and occur anywhere a web application uses input from a user in the output it generates without validating or encoding it.
An attacker can use XSS to send a malicious script to an unsuspecting user. The end user’s browser has no way to know that the script should not be trusted, and will execute the script. Because it thinks the script came from a trusted source, the malicious script can access any cookies, session tokens, or other sensitive information retained by your browser and used with that site. These scripts can even rewrite the content of the HTML page.
Mitigation:
Configure your IPS - Intrusion Prevention System to detect and suppress this traffic.
Input Validation on the web application to normalize inputted data.
Set web apps to bind session cookies to the IP Address of the legitimate user and only permit that IP Address to use that cookie.
See the XSS (Cross Site Scripting) Prevention Cheat Sheet
See the Abridged XSS Prevention Cheat Sheet
See the DOM based XSS Prevention Cheat Sheet
See the OWASP Development Guide article on Phishing.
See the OWASP Development Guide article on Data Validation.
The following answers are incorrect:
Intrusion Detection Systems: Sorry. IDS Systems aren't usually the target of XSS attacks but a properly-configured IDS/IPS can "detect and report on malicious string and suppress the TCP connection in an attempt to mitigate the threat.
Firewalls: Sorry. Firewalls aren't usually the target of XSS attacks.
DNS Servers: Same as above, DNS Servers aren't usually targeted in XSS attacks but they play a key role in the domain name resolution in the XSS attack process.
The following reference(s) was used to create this question:
CCCure Holistic Security+ CBT and Curriculum
and
https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-site_Scripting_%28XSS%29
Crackers today are MOST often motivated by their desire to:
Help the community in securing their networks.
Seeing how far their skills will take them.
Getting recognition for their actions.
Gaining Money or Financial Gains.
A few years ago the best choice for this question would have been seeing how far their skills can take them. Today this has changed greatly, most crimes committed are financially motivated.
Profit is the most widespread motive behind all cybercrimes and, indeed, most crimes- everyone wants to make money. Hacking for money or for free services includes a smorgasbord of crimes such as embezzlement, corporate espionage and being a “hacker for hireâ€. Scams are easier to undertake but the likelihood of success is much lower. Money-seekers come from any lifestyle but those with persuasive skills make better con artists in the same way as those who are exceptionally tech-savvy make better “hacks for hireâ€.
"White hats" are the security specialists (as opposed to Black Hats) interested in helping the community in securing their networks. They will test systems and network with the owner authorization.
A Black Hat is someone who uses his skills for offensive purpose. They do not seek authorization before they attempt to comprise the security mechanisms in place.
"Grey Hats" are people who sometimes work as a White hat and other times they will work as a "Black Hat", they have not made up their mind yet as to which side they prefer to be.
The following are incorrect answers:
All the other choices could be possible reasons but the best one today is really for financial gains.
References used for this question:
http://library.thinkquest.org/04oct/00460/crimeMotives.html
and
http://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=1160835
and
http://www.aic.gov.au/documents/1/B/A/%7B1BA0F612-613A-494D-B6C5-06938FE8BB53%7Dhtcb006.pdf
In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.
virus
worm
Trojan horse.
trapdoor
A trojan horse is any code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it. A Trojan often also includes a trapdoor as a means to gain access to a computer system bypassing security controls.
Wikipedia defines it as:
A Trojan horse, or Trojan, in computing is a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that, when executed, carries out actions determined by the nature of the Trojan, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm. The term is derived from the story of the wooden horse used to trick defenders of Troy into taking concealed warriors into their city in ancient Greece, because computer Trojans often employ a form of social engineering, presenting themselves as routine, useful, or interesting in order to persuade victims to install them on their computers.
The following answers are incorrect:
virus. Is incorrect because a Virus is a malicious program and is does not appear to be harmless, it's sole purpose is malicious intent often doing damage to a system. A computer virus is a type of malware that, when executed, replicates by inserting copies of itself (possibly modified) into other computer programs, data files, or the boot sector of the hard drive; when this replication succeeds, the affected areas are then said to be "infected".
worm. Is incorrect because a Worm is similiar to a Virus but does not require user intervention to execute. Rather than doing damage to the system, worms tend to self-propagate and devour the resources of a system. A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program. Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
trapdoor. Is incorrect because a trapdoor is a means to bypass security by hiding an entry point into a system. Trojan Horses often have a trapdoor imbedded in them.
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trojan_horse_%28computing%29
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_worm
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backdoor_%28computing%29
What is malware that can spread itself over open network connections?
Worm
Rootkit
Adware
Logic Bomb
Computer worms are also known as Network Mobile Code, or a virus-like bit of code that can replicate itself over a network, infecting adjacent computers.
A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program. Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
A notable example is the SQL Slammer computer worm that spread globally in ten minutes on January 25, 2003. I myself came to work that day as a software tester and found all my SQL servers infected and actively trying to infect other computers on the test network.
A patch had been released a year prior by Microsoft and if systems were not patched and exposed to a 376 byte UDP packet from an infected host then system would become compromised.
Ordinarily, infected computers are not to be trusted and must be rebuilt from scratch but the vulnerability could be mitigated by replacing a single vulnerable dll called sqlsort.dll.
Replacing that with the patched version completely disabled the worm which really illustrates to us the importance of actively patching our systems against such network mobile code.
The following answers are incorrect:
- Rootkit: Sorry, this isn't correct because a rootkit isn't ordinarily classified as network mobile code like a worm is. This isn't to say that a rootkit couldn't be included in a worm, just that a rootkit isn't usually classified like a worm. A rootkit is a stealthy type of software, typically malicious, designed to hide the existence of certain processes or programs from normal methods of detection and enable continued privileged access to a computer. The term rootkit is a concatenation of "root" (the traditional name of the privileged account on Unix operating systems) and the word "kit" (which refers to the software components that implement the tool). The term "rootkit" has negative connotations through its association with malware.
- Adware: Incorrect answer. Sorry but adware isn't usually classified as a worm. Adware, or advertising-supported software, is any software package which automatically renders advertisements in order to generate revenue for its author. The advertisements may be in the user interface of the software or on a screen presented to the user during the installation process. The functions may be designed to analyze which Internet sites the user visits and to present advertising pertinent to the types of goods or services featured there. The term is sometimes used to refer to software that displays unwanted advertisements.
- Logic Bomb: Logic bombs like adware or rootkits could be spread by worms if they exploit the right service and gain root or admin access on a computer.
The following reference(s) was used to create this question:
The CCCure CompTIA Holistic Security+ Tutorial and CBT
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rootkit
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_worm
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adware
What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?
They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.
They have nothing in common.
They are both masquerading attacks.
They are both social engineering attacks.
While a masquerading attack can be considered a type of social engineering, the Melissa and ILOVEYOU viruses are examples of masquerading attacks, even if it may cause some kind of denial of service due to the web server being flooded with messages. In this case, the receiver confidently opens a message coming from a trusted individual, only to find that the message was sent using the trusted party's identity.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 650).
Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?
Boot Sector
Parasitic
Stealth
Polymorphic
A Polymorphic virus produces varied but operational copies of itself in hopes of evading anti-virus software.
The following answers are incorrect:
boot sector. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A boot sector virus attacks the boot sector of a drive. It describes the type of attack of the virus and not the characteristics of its composition.
parasitic. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A parasitic virus attaches itself to other files but does not change its characteristics.
stealth. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A stealth virus attempts to hide changes of the affected files but not itself.
The high availability of multiple all-inclusive, easy-to-use hacking tools that do NOT require much technical knowledge has brought a growth in the number of which type of attackers?
Black hats
White hats
Script kiddies
Phreakers
As script kiddies are low to moderately skilled hackers using available scripts and tools to easily launch attacks against victims.
The other answers are incorrect because :
Black hats is incorrect as they are malicious , skilled hackers.
White hats is incorrect as they are security professionals.
Phreakers is incorrect as they are telephone/PBX (private branch exchange) hackers.
Reference : Shon Harris AIO v3 , Chapter 12: Operations security , Page : 830
Which of the following category of UTP cables is specified to be able to handle gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) according to the EIA/TIA-568-B standards?
Category 5e UTP
Category 2 UTP
Category 3 UTP
Category 1e UTP
Categories 1 through 6 are based on the EIA/TIA-568-B standards.
On the newer wiring for LANs is CAT5e, an improved version of CAT5 which used to be outside of the standard, for more information on twisted pair, please see: twisted pair.
Category Cable Type Mhz Usage Speed
=============================================
CAT1 UTP Analog voice, Plain Old Telephone System (POTS)
CAT2 UTP 4 Mbps on Token Ring, also used on Arcnet networks
CAT3 UTP, ScTP, STP 16 MHz 10 Mbps
CAT4 UTP, ScTP, STP 20 MHz 16 Mbps on Token Ring Networks
CAT5 UTP, ScTP, STP 100 MHz 100 Mbps on ethernet, 155 Mbps on ATM
CAT5e UTP, ScTP, STP 100 MHz 1 Gbps (out of standard version, improved version of CAT5)
CAT6 UTP, ScTP, STP 250 MHz 10 Gbps
CAT7 ScTP, STP 600 M 100 Gbps
Category 6 has a minumum of 250 MHz of bandwidth. Allowing 10/100/1000 use with up to 100 meter cable length, along with 10GbE over shorter distances.
Category 6a or Augmented Category 6 has a minimum of 500 MHz of bandwidth. It is the newest standard and allows up to 10GbE with a length up to 100m.
Category 7 is a future cabling standard that should allow for up to 100GbE over 100 meters of cable. Expected availability is in 2013. It has not been approved as a cable standard, and anyone now selling you Cat. 7 cable is fooling you.
REFERENCES:
http://donutey.com/ethernet.php
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TIA/EIA-568-B
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Category_1_cable
What is called an attack in which an attacker floods a system with connection requests but does not respond when the target system replies to those requests?
Ping of death attack
SYN attack
Smurf attack
Buffer overflow attack
A SYN attack occurs when an attacker floods the target system's small "in-process" queue with connection requests, but it does not respond when the target system replies to those requests. This causes the target system to "time out" while waiting for the proper response, which makes the system crash or become unusable. A buffer overflow attack occurs when a process receives much more data than expected. One common buffer overflow attack is the ping of death, where an attacker sends IP packets that exceed the maximum legal length (65535 octets). A smurf attack is an attack where the attacker spoofs the source IP address in an ICMP ECHO broadcast packet so it seems to have originated at the victim's system, in order to flood it with REPLY packets.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 76).
Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a protocol that one program can use to request a service from a program located in another computer in a network. Within which OSI/ISO layer is RPC implemented?
Session layer
Transport layer
Data link layer
Network layer
The Answer: Session layer, which establishes, maintains and manages sessions and synchronization of data flow. Session layer protocols control application-to-application communications, which is what an RPC call is.
The following answers are incorrect:
Transport layer: The Transport layer handles computer-to computer communications, rather than application-to-application communications like RPC.
Data link Layer: The Data Link layer protocols can be divided into either Logical Link Control (LLC) or Media Access Control (MAC) sublayers. Protocols like SLIP, PPP, RARP and L2TP are at this layer. An application-to-application protocol like RPC would not be addressed at this layer.
Network layer: The Network Layer is mostly concerned with routing and addressing of information, not application-to-application communication calls such as an RPC call.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
The Remote Procedure Call (RPC) protocol is implemented at the Session layer, which establishes, maintains and manages sessions as well as synchronization of the data flow.
Source: Jason Robinett's CISSP Cram Sheet: domain2.
Source: Shon Harris AIO v3 pg. 423
Communications and network security relates to transmission of which of the following?
voice
voice and multimedia
data and multimedia
voice, data and multimedia
From the published (ISC)2 goals for the Certified Information Systems Security Professional candidate:
The CISSP candidate should be familiar to communications and network security as it relates to voice, data, multimedia, and facsimile transmissions in terms of local area, wide area, and remote access.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 57.
Which communication method is characterized by very high speed transmission rates that are governed by electronic clock timing signals?
Asynchronous Communication.
Synchronous Communication.
Automatic Communication.
Full duplex Communication.
Synchronous Communication is characterized by very high speed transmission rates that are governed by electronic clock timing signals.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 100
Which of the following is required in order to provide accountability?
Authentication
Integrity
Confidentiality
Audit trails
Accountability can actually be seen in two different ways:
1) Although audit trails are also needed for accountability, no user can be accountable for their actions unless properly authenticated.
2) Accountability is another facet of access control. Individuals on a system are responsible for their actions. This accountability property enables system activities to be traced to the proper individuals. Accountability is supported by audit trails that record events on the system and network. Audit trails can be used for intrusion detection and for the reconstruction of past events. Monitoring individual activities, such as keystroke monitoring, should be accomplished in accordance with the company policy and appropriate laws. Banners at the log-on time should notify the user of any monitoring that is being conducted.
The point is that unless you employ an appropriate auditing mechanism, you don't have accountability. Authorization only gives a user certain permissions on the network. Accountability is far more complex because it also includes intrusion detection, unauthorized actions by both unauthorized users and authorized users, and system faults. The audit trail provides the proof that unauthorized modifications by both authorized and unauthorized users took place. No proof, No accountability.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Page 50.
The Shon Harris AIO book, 4th Edition, on Page 243 also states:
Auditing Capabilities ensures users are accountable for their actions, verify that the secutiy policies are enforced,
and can be used as investigation tools. Accountability is tracked by recording user, system, and application activities.
This recording is done through auditing functions and mechanisms within an operating sytem or application.
Audit trail contain information about operating System activities, application events, and user actions.