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PMI-100 Exam Dumps - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Question # 4

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

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Question # 5

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 6

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

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Question # 7

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Question # 8

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Question # 9

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 10

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

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Question # 11

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Question # 12

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

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Question # 13

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 14

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Question # 15

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 16

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Question # 17

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 18

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Question # 19

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 20

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

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Question # 21

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Question # 22

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Question # 23

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Question # 24

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Question # 25

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 26

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 27

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Question # 28

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

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Question # 29

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 30

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Question # 31

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Question # 32

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

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Question # 33

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Question # 34

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

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Question # 35

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 36

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Question # 37

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

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Question # 38

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

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Question # 39

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Question # 40

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Question # 41

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

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Question # 42

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

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Question # 43

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 44

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 45

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

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Question # 46

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Question # 47

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Question # 48

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Change requests

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 49

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Question # 50

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Question # 51

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

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Question # 52

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 53

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Question # 54

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Question # 55

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 56

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Question # 57

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Question # 58

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 59

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 60

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 61

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Question # 62

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Question # 63

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 64

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 65

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Question # 66

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 67

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Question # 68

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Question # 69

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

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Question # 70

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Question # 71

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

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Question # 72

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

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Question # 73

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

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Question # 74

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Question # 75

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Question # 76

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Question # 77

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Question # 78

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

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Question # 79

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Question # 80

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

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Question # 81

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

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Question # 82

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

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Question # 83

The product scope description is used to:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

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Question # 84

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Question # 85

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 86

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

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Question # 87

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Question # 88

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Question # 89

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 90

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 91

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

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Question # 92

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

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Question # 93

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

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Question # 94

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Question # 95

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Question # 96

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 97

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

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Question # 98

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 99

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

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Question # 100

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Question # 101

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 102

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 103

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Question # 104

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 105

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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