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E2 Exam Dumps - Managing Performance

Question # 4

After undertaking competitive analysis, a company has assembled the information and is now in a position to benchmark its performance against that of its competitor. A manager has been asked to carry out strategic benchmarking, but he is unsure of what information he should use.

 

Which TWO of the options below could be used to undertake Strategic Benchmarking?

A.

% Market Share

B.

% return on Non Current Assets

C.

% late deliveries

D.

% sales returns

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Question # 5

The organisational iceberg describes which TWO levels at which culture operates? 

A.

Values

B.

Formal aspects

C.

Basic assumptions

D.

Behavioral aspects

E.

Control systems

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Question # 6

Objectives generally possess characteristics which set them apart from mission statements. Which THREE of the following apply?

A.

Objectives are targets to be achieved.

B.

Objectives are descriptions of what the company provides.

C.

Objectives involve the time-frames within which targets are to be achieved.

D.

Objectives are concerned with the basic purposes of organisations.

E.

Objectives provide precise formulations of the attributes sought.

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Question # 7

With reference to Herzberg's motivation-hygiene concept (two-factor theory) relating to employee motivation, which of the following is a correct interpretation of his findings?

A.

The presence of hygiene factors are necessary in the workplace to prevent dissatisfaction.

B.

The absence of hygiene factors will inspire employees and improve motivation.

C.

The absence of hygiene factors will provide a better work environment and motivate employees.

D.

The presence of hygiene factors will increase employee morale and motivation.

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Question # 8

A number of managers in an organisation approach change using a variety of techniques. Manager A focuses on staff training. Manager B provides large bonuses for effective project management. Manager C

restructures his team to reduce headcount. Manager D lays out the financial problems in the business and why change is unavoidable. Manager E calls his team together to openly discuss the issues. Manager F calls

for ideas from his team to make the change happen.

Based on Beer and Nohria's change theory, which of these managers can be described as Theory 0 managers?

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Manager A

B.

Manager E

C.

Manager F

D.

Manager B

E.

Manager C

F.

Manager D

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Question # 9

Under UK Law it is an employer's duty to protect the health, safety and welfare of the employees and other people who may be affected by their business. In what manner must employers act?

 

Select the THREE that apply.

A.

Carry out risk assessments to address all risks that might cause harm in the workplace.

B.

Provide information in the workplace about how employees and others are protected and instruct them how they can deal with the risks.

C.

It is the duty of all employees to take reasonable care for the health and safety of themselves and of other persons who may be affected by their acts and omissions at work.

D.

The employee has a duty to cooperate with his/her employer so far as is necessary to enable health and safety requirements to be performed and complied with.

E.

Display Health and Safety Regulations in a prominent position in every workplace or provide each worker with a copy.

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Question # 10

An employee of a company has been asked to explain the difference between a Grievance and Disciplinary Action. The employee knows the definitions of both and, whilst they have two examples of actions which would result in Disciplinary Action, they can only think of one circumstance which may result in a Grievance, and this is Discrimination.

 

Which of the following could the employee use as an additional example of a Grievance? 

A.

The employee is regularly absent.

B.

The employee feels that they have not been considered for promotion because of their age.

C.

The employee entered a restricted area.

D.

The employee feels that they have been given an unfair appraisal.

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Question # 11

According to the Project Management Body of Knowledge as outlined by the Project Management Institute, there are nine key areas of project management. Which of the following are areas identified by the PMI?

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Integration

B.

Resource Management

C.

Procurement

D.

Risk

E.

Quality

F.

Initiation

G.

Monitoring

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Question # 12

An organisation manufacturing cosmetics was set up five years ago and has since grown considerably.

 

The organisation did not have clear strategies and as such any approaches emerged. The directors feel a new way to strategy setting would be more appropriate; one that could offer a more thorough, intended, deliberate approach.

 

Which of the following is a suitable approach to developing strategy for this organisation?

A.

Rational Strategy

B.

Resource based strategy

C.

Emergent strategy

D.

Shareholder strategy

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Question # 13

What event occurs between the second and third stages of Gido and Clement's Project Life Cycle?

A.

An agreement to proceed with the project is made

B.

A request for a proposal is made

C.

Several solutions are proposed

D.

The identification that there is a need a project

E.

A feasibility study is undertaken

F.

Project objectives are identified

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Question # 14

Michael Porter argued that nations can develop advanced business environments that are conducive to business development and lead to firms from one nation gaining a competitive advantage over firms from other countries. Porter used a diamond shaped diagram as the basis of a framework to illustrate and analyse the determinants that lead to national advantage.

 

Which of the following factors are present within the diamond framework?

 

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Factor conditions

B.

Demand conditions

C.

Firm strategy, structure and rivalry

D.

Related and supporting industries

E.

Export opportunities

F.

Education resources

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Question # 15

Michael Porter identified four determinants of national competitive advantage, one of which is Factor conditions.

 

A company has the following 4 factor conditions. According to Porter, which will give the company a sustainable competetive advantage? 

A.

Unskilled labour

B.

Raw materials

C.

R & D experience

D.

Initial capital availability

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Question # 16

PRINCE2 clearly defines a set of roles for every active participant on a project. What is the role described below?

 

This is the person ultimately responsible for the business success of the entire project. They must ensure the project gives value for money and balance the demands of business user and supplier.

 

This person is also the ultimate decision-maker in the project. For this reason they are appointed before the project starts. As the person is directly responsible for the project business case, it is expected that in most instances they are appointed from the customer side of the organisation.

A.

Team Manager

B.

Executive

C.

Senior User

D.

Project Manager

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Question # 17

The new Chief Executive of P Company has recently announced that there will be significant changes made to how the company operates. He has stated that his vision for the company cannot be achieved within the existing organisational paradigm.

 

Although the changes are significant, due to increased competitive pressures, the Chief Executive has commented that changes will need to be made quickly.

 

Which of the following types of change will occur in P Company?

A.

Evolution

B.

Adaptation

C.

Reconstruction

D.

Revolution

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Question # 18

Every project has constraints. When running a project it is critical that the constraints are known.

 

What are the primary constraints in a project?

A.

Need, Solution & Implement

B.

Initiate, Plan, Execute, Control & Complete

C.

Define, Design & Develop

D.

Time, Cost & Quality

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Question # 19

Which of the following statements are not true based on Stalk, Evans and Schulman's principles of capability-based competition?

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Generating new ideas are core to business success.

B.

It is the process that is important and not the product or market.

C.

The business processes create value.

D.

It is important to invest in skills and processes, not business functions.

E.

The CEO leads the development of capabilities.

F.

Capability is developed from internal and external factors.

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Question # 20

A fundamental concept of the successful use of a Balanced Scorecard is:

A.

to continually increase the number of performance indicators used to manage the business.

B.

to sometimes use a traffic light system to help prioritise activities in the scorecard.

C.

to see the scorecard as a technique for formulating strategy.

D.

to ensure that the scorecard consists of leading indicators of performance only.

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Question # 21

While initiating a project to relocate to a larger site, a company looked at how the project proposal fits with the current set up of the business. The premises are only 20 miles away and it is feasible that the current staff would travel to the new factory to work.

 

As part of the feasibility considerations, this represents which type of feasibility?

A.

Technical

B.

Social

C.

Environmental

D.

Economic

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Question # 22

The initial Balanced Scorecard design, defined by Kaplan and Norton, used four perspectives (or legs) for management control and the implementation of strategy. What are the FOUR original perspectives?

A.

Learning and growth

B.

Internal business

C.

External issues

D.

Competitors

E.

Financial

F.

Customer

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Question # 23

Which THREE of the following are benefits of having strong discipline and grievance procedures in place?

A.

Cost savings due to legal costs being avoided.

B.

Staff have higher morale and are more motivated.

C.

Any staff who don't perform as required can be dismissed without risk of legal action.

D.

Company meets its legal requirements.

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Question # 24

A low cost airline is operating three flights a day between two industrial cities in neighbouring countries. The cities are 300 km apart and the terrain between the two countries is mostly flat grasslands. The two cities are also linked by motorways and a railway line.

 

At first the airline enjoyed first mover advantage and generated healthy profits for three years. But more recently, the airline is experiencing intense competitive pressures, reduced passenger numbers and lower returns. The airline directors are using Porter's Five Forces framework to analyse the nature and severity of the various competitive forces being experienced.

 

In the context of this model which of the following forces would be considered as a threat of a substitute product or service?

A.

High speed rail connection between the two cities

B.

National airlines competing in low cost markets

C.

Foreign airline now offering a service on this route

D.

Corporate customers driving down ticket prices

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Question # 25

Which of the following are influential drivers of outsourcing?

 

Select ALL that apply.

A.

Cost savings

B.

Synchronised deliverables

C.

New skill sets

D.

Rapid growth

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Question # 26

The B Car Company is considering a joint venture with a company in Country X. It is undertaking a political risk analysis at both a micro and macro level. Which of the following is a micro level risk?

A.

Threat of civil war in Country X

B.

Government expropriation of private company assets wtthout compensation

C.

Government regulation of the Car Industry in Country X

D.

Political boycott of goods from Country X by several other countries

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Question # 27

The means by which competitive advantage might be gained differs, depending on whether a resource based approach or a positioning approach is adopted.

 

Which of the following options characterises the resource based approach?

 

Select ALL that apply:

A.

Superior profitability depends on the firm's possession of unique resources.

B.

Super normal profits result from either cost leadership, differentiation or focus.

C.

Competitive advantage derives from a firm's position in relation to its competitors, customers and stakeholders.

D.

Competitive advantage stems from some valuable asset or competence possessed by the firm.

E.

Organisations need to ensure they are continually monitoring the market place to make sure that their core competences are still valid.

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Question # 28

The advantages of embedding the finance function within the business unit include which THREE of the following?

A.

It allows the accountant to provide information specific to a particular business unit with greater efficiency.

B.

It prevents duplication of effort across the organisation.

C.

It enables strong relationships to be developed between the accountant and the rest of the management team within a particular business unit.

D.

It means that the accountant is able to develop best practice that can be of benefit to the whole company.

E.

It allows the accountant to build up detailed local knowledge and understanding of the business unit.

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Question # 29

James argues that performance appraisal has its roots in three substantiated psychological principles, meaning that people work / learn / achieve more when they are given the opportunities.

 

Which of the following does NOT apply?

A.

Information for human resource planning.

B.

Involvement in the setting of tasks and goals.

C.

Adequate feedback as to how they are performing, in other words knowledge of results.

D.

Clear attainable goals so they know what to strive for.

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Question # 30

Mintzberg describes various forms of strategy and labels each form. Which of the following options contains the correct matching of label with description?

A.

Plan = means of identifying place in the environment/market

B.

Perspective =  manoeuvre in a competitive business game

C.

Pattern = consistent behaviour over time

D.

Ploy = a path to get from here to there

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Question # 31

A Company achieves its competitive advantage by adopting a positioning view to strategy setting.

 

Which TWO of the technical models below are most suited to this approach?

A.

Michael Porter's Value Chain.

B.

PESTEL analysis.

C.

Michael Porter's Five Forces model.

D.

Resource Audit.

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