CV0-003 Exam Dumps - CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam

Raising a problem ticket is the first action that the administrator should take while working on the resolution of a security issue on the OS of a VM that is running a facility-management application in a cloud environment. A problem ticket is a record of an incident or issue that affects or may affect the normal operation or performance of a system or service. A problem ticket contains information such as description, priority, status, root cause, solution, etc., that can help to track and manage the problem resolution process. Raising a problem ticket can help to communicate and document the security issue, assign responsibility and accountability, monitor progress and performance, and prevent recurrence.

A type 1 hypervisor is what would best meet the requirements of high-performance VMs (Virtual Machines), more secure, and has system independence for a company that wants to move its environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in. A hypervisor is a software or hardware that allows multiple VMs to run on a single physical host or server. A hypervisor can be classified into two types:

• Type 1 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs directly on the hardware or bare metal of the host or server, without any underlying OS (Operating System). A type 1 hypervisor can provide benefits such as:
• Type 2 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs on top of an OS of the host or server, as a software application or program. A type 2 hypervisor can provide benefits such as:

These are the network ports that are required from a security perspective to copy a large set of files between the private and public cloud through a VPN tunnel. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunnel is a secure and encrypted connection that allows data to be transferred between two networks or locations over the public internet. To copy files between the private and public cloud, the following ports are needed:

• Port 22: This is the port used by SSH (Secure Shell) protocol, which is a method of remotely accessing and managing cloud resources or systems using a command-line interface. SSH can also be used to securely transfer files using SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol).
• Port 443: This is the port used by HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a protocol that encrypts and secures web traffic. HTTPS can also be used to transfer files using web browsers or tools such as curl or wget.
• Port 445: This is the port used by SMB (Server Message Block) protocol, which is a protocol that allows file sharing and access over a network. SMB can also be used to transfer files using tools such as robocopy or rsync.

 To troubleshoot the performance of a scheduled job that takes two hours to run after onboarding 10,000 new users to a cloud-based system, the administrator should evaluate the IaaS compute configurations, the capacity trend analysis reports, and the storage IOPS. These factors can affect the performance of a database job in an IaaS instance on a cloud provider. The IaaS compute configurations include the CPU, memory, and network resources assigned to the instance. The capacity trend analysis reports show the historical and projected usage and demand of the resources. The storage IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) measure the speed and performance of the disk storage. The administrator should check if these factors are sufficient, optimal, or need to be adjusted to improve the performance of the job.

The best way to resolve the issue of an unusual increase in the read operations that is causing a heavy load in the system that is using a relational database and is running in a VM is to use a cache system to store reading operations. A cache system is a type of storage system that temporarily stores frequently accessed or recently used data in memory for faster retrieval. A cache system can reduce the load on the database system by serving the read requests from the cache instead of querying the database every time. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot capacity issues within a cloud environment.

The benchmark results show that the video RAM utilization is at 99%, which is likely causing the application crashes. Video RAM is used to store graphics data and textures that are processed by the GPU. Selecting a higher vGPU profile can help allocate more video RAM to the virtual machines, which can help resolve this issue. A vGPU profile is a predefined configuration that specifies the amount of video RAM, the number of display heads, and the maximum resolution that a virtual machine can use. By selecting a higher vGPU profile, the administrator can increase the performance and stability of the high-frame-rate rendering application. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide], Chapter 4, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common virtualization issues.

The first step in any incident response procedure is to contain the incident and prevent it from spreading or causing more damage. In this scenario, the systems administrator is reviewing the logs from a company’s IDS and notices a large amount of outgoing traffic from a particular server. The administrator then runs a scan on the server, which detects malware that cannot be removed. This indicates that the server is compromised and may be sending malicious or sensitive data to an external source. Therefore, the best thing to do first is to disconnect the server from the network, which will isolate it from the rest of the system and stop the data exfiltration. Determining the root cause, performing a more intrusive scan, and restoring the server from a backup are all important steps, but they should be done after the server is disconnected from the network. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10, Incident Response Procedures, page 1771.

Antivirus version and definition and OS patch level are important criteria for the organization to consider when allowing access to devices that meet the corporate security compliance levels. These criteria can help ensure that the devices are protected from malware and vulnerabilities that could compromise the security of the organization’s data and systems. Serial number, firmware, CPU architecture, and manufacturer are not directly related to security compliance levels, although they may be relevant for other purposes such as inventory management or compatibility.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, apply security configurations and compliance controls1 ; CompTIA Quick Start Guide to Tackling Cloud Security Concerns2

The most likely reason for the latency is service degradation on the ISP. The results show that the ping and traceroute commands have sporadic timeout and increased round-trip values when reaching the public IP address of the cloud provider. This indicates that there is a network issue between the organization and the cloud provider, which could be caused by service degradation on the ISP. Service degradation on the ISP means that the ISP is experiencing reduced performance or availability of its network services, which can affect the quality and speed of the data transmission. Service degradation on the ISP can be caused by various factors, such as congestion, routing problems, hardware failures, or maintenance activities. To resolve this issue, the systems administrator should contact the ISP and report the problem, and request a status update or a resolution plan. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot network connectivity issues.

Renewing the expired certificate is what would most likely resolve the issue of users receiving a message indicating the connection is not secure when landing on a website that is hosted on a cloud platform and accessed through https://www.comptiasite.com. A certificate is a digital document that contains information such as identity, public key, expiration date, etc., that can be used to prove one’s identity and establish secure communication over a network. A certificate can expire when it reaches its validity period and needs to be renewed or replaced. An expired certificate can cause users to receive a message indicating the connection is not secure by indicating that the website’s identity or security cannot be verified or trusted. Renewing the expired certificate can resolve the issue by extending its validity period and restoring its identity or security verification or trust.

The upgrade method that is being implemented by the systems administrator is rolling. A rolling upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a subset of nodes or instances at a time, while the rest of the nodes or instances continue to run the old version. This way, the upgrade can be performed gradually and incrementally, without causing downtime or disruption to the entire system. A rolling upgrade can also help to monitor and test the new version for any issues or errors, and roll back to the old version if needed12.

A canary upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a small and selected group of users or customers, before rolling it out to the rest of the population. This way, the upgrade can be evaluated for its performance, functionality, and feedback, and any problems or bugs can be fixed before affecting the majority of users or customers34.

A blue-green upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having two identical environments, one running the old version (blue) and one running the new version (green) of a software or service. The traffic is switched from the blue environment to the green environment once the new version is ready and tested. This way, the upgrade can be performed quickly and seamlessly, without any downtime or risk of failure. The blue environment can also serve as a backup in case of any issues with the green environment5 .

A staging upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having a separate environment that mimics the production environment, where the new version of a software or service is deployed and tested before moving it to the production environment. This way, the upgrade can be verified and validated for its compatibility, security, and quality, and any defects or errors can be resolved before affecting the live system .

Deprecated features are features that are no longer supported or recommended by the software vendor or provider. They may be removed or replaced by newer features in future updates or versions. If a playbook relies on deprecated features, it may stop functioning after an update or patch is applied to the software. The administrator should check the release notes or documentation of the software to identify and replace any deprecated features in the playbook.

User permissions are not correct is the most likely cause of the error 403 (Forbidden) that is returned when a coworker attempts to use a deployment script after being set up for API access to a public cloud environment by an administrator. API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and interact with each other. API access is the ability to use or access an API to perform certain actions or tasks on a software component or system. User permissions are the settings or policies that control and restrict what users can do or access on a software component or system. User permissions can affect API access by determining what actions or tasks users can perform using an API on a software component or system. User permissions are not correct if they do not match or align with the intended or expected actions or tasks that users want to perform using an API on a software component or system. User permissions are not correct can cause error 403 (Forbidden), which means that the user does not have the necessary permission or authorization to perform the requested action or task using an API on a software component or system.

IPAM (IP Address Management) is what the administrator will most likely use to select an address for the new VM that is about to be deployed to a cloud environment. IPAM is a tool or service that allows customers to plan, track, and manage the IP addresses and DNS names of their cloud resources or systems. IPAM can help to select an address for the new VM by providing information such as available IP addresses, IP address ranges, subnets, domains, etc., as well as ensuring that the address is unique and valid.

These are the factors that should be considered for capacity planning in a cloud environment. Capacity planning is a process of estimating and allocating the necessary resources and performance to meet the current and future demands of cloud applications or services. Capacity planning can help to optimize costs, efficiency, and reliability of cloud resources or services. The factors that should be considered for capacity planning are:

• Requirements: These are the specifications or expectations of the cloud applications or services, such as functionality, availability, scalability, security, etc. Requirements can help to determine the type, amount, and quality of resources or services needed to meet the objectives and goals of the cloud applications or services.
• Licensing: This is the agreement or contract that grants customers the right to use or access certain cloud resources or services for a specific period or fee. Licensing can affect the cost, availability, and compliance of cloud resources or services. Licensing can help to determine the budget, duration, and scope of using or accessing cloud resources or services.
• Trend analysis: This is the technique of analyzing historical and current data to identify patterns, changes, or fluctuations in demand or usage of cloud resources or services. Trend analysis can help to predict and anticipate future demand or usage of cloud resources or services, as well as identify any opportunities or challenges that may arise.

A network security group is a service that allows the cloud administrator to filter and control the network traffic between different resources in a cloud environment. A network security group contains security rules that specify the source, destination, protocol, port, and direction of the traffic, and whether to allow or deny it. A network security group can be associated with a subnet or a network interface in a virtual machine, and it can apply to inbound or outbound traffic. A network security group would be the best way to achieve the objective of controlling the connections between a group of web servers and database servers as part of the financial application security review, as it can provide granular and flexible control over the network access and security of the servers.

This is the best solution to achieve the objective of reducing current RTO (Recovery Time Objective) from 12 hours to one hour, and RPO (Recovery Point Objective) from one day to eight hours, at the lowest cost possible, for a website that uses mostly static files and a small relational database. RTO is a metric that measures how quickly a system or service can be restored after a disruption or disaster. RPO is a metric that measures how much data can be lost or how far back in time a recovery point can be without causing significant impact or damage. To reduce RTO and RPO, the administrator should implement a website replica in the cloud with auto-scaling using the smallest possible footprint. A website replica is a copy or backup of a website that can be used for recovery or failover purposes. Auto-scaling is a feature that allows cloud resources or systems to adjust their capacity and performance according to demand or workload. Using auto-scaling with the smallest possible footprint can minimize costs by using only the necessary resources and scaling up or down as needed. The administrator should also use DNS (Domain Name System) to shift the load from on premises to the cloud. DNS is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Using DNS, the administrator can redirect traffic from the on-premises website to the cloud replica in case of a disruption or disaster, and vice versa when recovery is complete.

The best strategy to migrate the current on-premises workloads to the public cloud for the company that requires at least 80 instances running at all times and wants the workload to be highly available and cost-effective is to create /26 subnets in two regions and run 40 instances on each one. A /26 subnet can accommodate up to 62 hosts, which is enough for 40 instances. By creating subnets in two regions, the company can achieve high availability and redundancy in case one region fails due to a catastrophe. By running 40 instances on each subnet, the company can meet the minimum requirement of 80 instances and also save on costs by avoiding overprovisioning or underutilization of resources. Reference: What is VPN? How It Works, Types of VPN - Kaspersky

The most likely causes of the issue where the new asynchronous workflow fails to create 50 VMs at once in the public cloud are insufficient storage and expired API token. Insufficient storage means that there is not enough disk space available in the public cloud to accommodate all the VMs that are being created simultaneously. This could result in errors or failures during the provisioning process. Expired API token means that the authentication credential that is used by the workflow to communicate with the public cloud service has expired or become invalid. This could result in errors or failures during the API calls or requests. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot automation/orchestration issues.

The cloud model that requires the least amount of administrative effort to migrate email services is software as a service (SaaS). SaaS is a cloud model that provides applications or software that are hosted and managed by a cloud provider and delivered to users over the internet. SaaS eliminates the need for installing, configuring, updating, or maintaining the software or its underlying infrastructure, as these tasks are handled by the cloud provider. The systems administrator only needs to subscribe to the email service and configure the user accounts and settings. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.4 Given a scenario, execute a provided deployment plan.

A canary deployment is a software deployment technique where a new feature or version is released to a small subset of users in production prior to releasing it to a larger subset or all the users. It is also sometimes termed a phased rollout or incremental release1. A canary deployment allows the developers to test the new service in a real environment and get feedback from the users before making it available to everyone. It also reduces the risk of failures and enables easy rollbacks if something goes wrong. A canary deployment is different from a blue-green deployment, where two identical environments are used to switch between the old and new versions of the service. A big bang deployment is where the new service is released to all the users at once, without any testing or gradual rollout. A rolling deployment is where the new service is installed in batches or stages, replacing the old service gradually until all the users are on the new version.

Hyperconverged infrastructure (HCI) is a type of deployment that combines compute, network, and storage resources in a single hardware appliance that is managed by an intelligent software layer. HCI simplifies the configuration and management of cloud resources, reduces hardware costs and complexity, and improves scalability and performance. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

A network-based scan is a type of vulnerability assessment that scans the network services exposed by the hosts without requiring any credentials or agents. This type of scan will help achieve the objective of scanning the network services with the least privileges, as it does not need any access to the hosts or their internal configurations. A network-based scan can identify open ports, running services, and potential vulnerabilities on the hosts. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.4 Given a scenario, implement security automation and orchestration in a cloud environment.

A volume-based licensing model is a licensing model that charges the customer based on the amount of data or resources that they consume or use. A volume-based licensing model is suitable for an laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) environment, as it allows the customer to pay only for what they need and scale up or down as their demand changes. A volume-based licensing model can provide financial benefits for the customer, such as lower upfront costs, greater flexibility, and more predictable billing.QUESTION NO: 277

A cloud administrator is evaluating a solution that will limit access to authorized individuals. The solution also needs to ensure the system that connects to the environment meets patching, antivirus, and configuration requirements. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?

A.NAC

B.EDR

C.IDS

D.HIPS

Answer: A

NAC (Network Access Control) is a technology that will limit access to authorized individuals and ensure the system that connects to the environment meets patching, antivirus, and configuration requirements. NAC can enforce policies and rules that define who, what, when, where, and how a device or a user can access a network or a cloud environment. NAC can also inspect and evaluate the security posture and compliance status of a device or a user before granting or denying access. For example, NAC can check if the device has the latest patches, antivirus software, and configuration settings, and if not, it can quarantine, remediate, or reject the device. NAC can also monitor and audit the ongoing network activity and behavior of the devices and users, and take actions if any violations or anomalies are detected.

A DDoS (distributed denial-of-service) attack is a type of network-based flooding attack that aims to overwhelm a target server or network with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources, making it unavailable or slow for legitimate users. According to the web search results, DDoS protection is a service or a solution that can detect and mitigate DDoS attacks by filtering out malicious traffic and allowing only legitimate traffic to pass through .

A NIPS (network intrusion prevention system) is a device or a software that can monitor, detect, and block malicious activity on a network, such as unauthorized access, malware, or policy violations. However, a NIPS may not be effective against DDoS attacks, as it can also be overwhelmed by the flood of traffic and fail to distinguish between legitimate and malicious requests.

A network overlay using GENEVE (Generic Network Virtualization Encapsulation) is a protocol that can create virtual networks on top of physical networks, allowing different cloud environments to communicate with each other. However, a network overlay using GENEVE does not provide any protection against DDoS attacks, as it does not filter or block any traffic.

A DoH (DNS over HTTPS) is a protocol that can encrypt and secure DNS queries and responses over HTTPS, preventing eavesdropping or tampering by third parties. However, a DoH does not prevent DDoS attacks, as it does not affect the amount or the source of the traffic.

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is a service that prevents the unauthorized or accidental disclosure of confidential or sensitive data, such as company information, intellectual property, customer data, or personal information. DLP can monitor, detect, and block the data in motion (such as email, web, or network traffic), data at rest (such as files, databases, or cloud storage), or data in use (such as endpoints, applications, or clipboard). DLP can help a systems administrator to ensure confidential company information is not leaked to competitors by applying policies and rules that define what data is considered confidential, who can access it, how it can be used, and what actions to take if a violation occurs. For example, DLP can encrypt, quarantine, delete, or alert the administrator if confidential data is being copied, transferred, or shared outside the organization.

A password and a physical token are two factors of authentication that can provide a higher level of security than a password alone. A physical token is a device that generates a one-time code or password that the user must enter along with their password to access the cloud provider console. This is an example of multi-factor authentication (MFA), which requires the user to present two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity. MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the password is compromised, as the attacker would also need to have the physical token to log in.

B. USB devices and F. Printers are most likely to be allowed in the upgrade. USB devices are common peripherals that users may want to connect to their virtual workstations, such as flash drives, keyboards, mice, webcams, etc. Printers are also useful devices that users may need to print documents from their virtual desktops. VDI software can support USB redirection and printer redirection to enable these devices to work with virtual workstations12.

Display monitors, SATA devices, PCIe devices, and PCI devices are less likely to be allowed in the upgrade, as they are either part of the physical hardware of the end device or the server, or they require direct access to the host system. VDI software typically does not support these types of devices, as they are not compatible with the virtualization layer or the remote display protocol34.

1: What is VDI? | Virtual Desktop Infrastructure | VMware 2: What Is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)? | Microsoft Azure 3: What Is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)? - Cisco 4: Best Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) Software in 2023 | G2

The answer is B. Running the command with elevated privileges. According to the web search results, the error message “End of file while reading data: sh: 1: nc: not found: Input/output error” indicates that the remote host does not have the nc (netcat) command installed or available in the PATH12. The nc command is used by libvirt to establish a connection between the client and the server. To fix this error, the administrator should install nc on the remote host or ensure that it is in the PATH. However, to do this, the administrator needs to have elevated privileges, such as sudo or root, on the remote host. Therefore, the administrator should try running the command with elevated privileges, such as sudo virsh remotehost or su -c ‘virsh remotehost’. This will allow the administrator to install nc or modify the PATH on the remote host and then connect to it using libvirt.

The correct answer is C. Economies of scale.

Economies of scale are the cost advantages that CSPs can achieve by increasing the size and scale of their operations. By spreading the fixed costs of infrastructure, software, and personnel over a larger customer base and data volume, CSPs can reduce the average cost per unit of service and offer unlimited capacity to customers at competitive prices1.

Adequate budget is not a sufficient condition for offering unlimited capacity, as CSPs still need to optimize their resource utilization and efficiency to meet the growing demand for data storage and processing.

Global data center distribution is a strategy that CSPs use to improve their service availability, reliability, and performance by locating their servers closer to their customers and reducing network latency. However, this does not necessarily imply unlimited capacity, as CSPs still need to manage the trade-offs between data center size, cost, and power consumption.

Agile project management is a methodology that CSPs use to deliver their services faster, better, and cheaper by adopting iterative, incremental, and collaborative approaches. However, this does not directly affect their capacity, as CSPs still need to scale their infrastructure and software to handle the increasing data load.

CDN, or content delivery network, is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server1. A CDN can improve the performance, availability, and scalability of cloud applications by caching static and dynamic content at the edge of the network, reducing the latency and bandwidth consumption between the users and the cloud servers2. A CDN can also provide security features such as encryption, authentication, and DDoS protection3.

Autoscaling, SR-IOV, and containerization are other techniques that can optimize the network for cloud applications, but they are not directly related to the requirement of faster downloads for users. Autoscaling is the process of automatically adjusting the number and size of compute resources based on the demand and workload of the application. SR-IOV, or single root I/O virtualization, is a technology that allows a physical network device to be partitioned into multiple virtual devices that can be assigned to different virtual machines or containers, bypassing the hypervisor and improving the network performance and efficiency. Containerization is the process of packaging an application and its dependencies into a lightweight and portable unit that can run on any platform, providing isolation, consistency, and portability.

References:

• CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Optimization, Section 4.1: Content Delivery Networks, Page 17523
• CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Optimization, Section 4.2: Autoscaling, Page 180
• CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Optimization, Section 4.3: SR-IOV, Page 184
• CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Optimization, Section 4.4: Containerization, Page 187
• What is a CDN?

A disaster recovery (DR) solution is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to restore or continue its critical functions in the event of a natural or human-induced disaster. A DR solution for the application between different data centers means that the application is replicated or backed up to another location that is geographically separated from the primary data center. This way, if the primary data center becomes unavailable due to a power outage, fire, flood, cyberattack, or any other cause, the application can be switched over to the secondary data center and resume its operations with minimal downtime and data loss. This solution ensures business continuity and high availability for the application and its users. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 221-222; Disaster recovery planning guide.

One possible answer is:

B. VPN

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a remote device and a private network over the internet. A VPN can help prevent unauthorized disclosure of financial information during the migration from a private cloud to the public cloud, as it can protect the data in transit from interception, tampering, or leakage. A VPN can also help maintain compliance with data privacy regulations, such as GDPR or PCI DSS, by ensuring that the data is only accessible by authorized parties12.

ACL (Access Control List) is a method of controlling access to resources based on user or group permissions. ACL can help enforce security policies and restrict access to sensitive data, but it does not encrypt or protect the data in transit3.

P2V (Physical to Virtual) is a process of converting a physical machine into a virtual machine. P2V can help migrate workloads from on-premises servers to cloud servers, but it does not ensure the security of the data during the migration4.

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is a technology that provides users with virtual desktops hosted on a centralized server. VDI can help improve the performance, availability, and manageability of desktop environments, but it does not address the security of the data during the migration5.

The best answer is A. Rightsizing.

Rightsizing is the process of restructuring a company so it can make a profit more efficiently and meet updated business objectives1. Organizations will usually rightsize their business by reducing their workforce, reorganizing upper management, cutting costs, and changing job roles2.

Rightsizing can help solve the issue of VMs constantly ballooning, while the memory usage of several other VMs is significantly lower than their resource allocation. Ballooning is a memory reclamation technique used when ESXi host runs out of memory. It involves a balloon driver that consumes unused memory within the VM’s address space and makes it available for other uses by the host machine3. However, ballooning can also degrade the performance of the VMs and cause swapping or paging4.

By rightsizing the VMs, the systems administrator can adjust the memory allocation according to the actual demand and usage of each VM. This can prevent overprovisioning or underprovisioning of memory resources and improve the efficiency and profitability of the company. Rightsizing can also help avoid redundancies, streamline workflows, and make better hiring decisions1.

The issue of an insecure firewall configuration state after every cloud application deployment is likely caused by a flaw in the IaC code used during the deployment. IaC stands for Infrastructure as Code, which is a method of managing and provisioning IT infrastructure using code, rather than manual configuration1. IaC allows teams to automate the setup and management of their infrastructure, making it more efficient and consistent. However, if the IaC code contains errors, vulnerabilities, or misconfigurations, it can result in security issues or compliance violations in the deployed infrastructure2. Therefore, to provide a permanent fix for the issue, the IaC code used during the deployment should be validated and tested to ensure that it meets the security requirements and best practices for firewall configuration. The IaC code can be validated using tools such as Azure Resource Manager Template Toolkit, AWS CloudFormation Linter, or Terraform Validate. These tools can check the syntax and semantics of the IaC code, and identify any potential errors or inconsistencies before deployment

The wrong template selection is the most likely cause of the issue of newly provisioned Linux VMs running an earlier version of OS than they should be in a private IaaS environment. A template is a preconfigured image or blueprint of a VM that contains an OS, applications, settings, etc., that can be used to create new VMs quickly and consistently. A template may have different versions or updates depending on when it was created or modified. If a template is selected incorrectly or not updated properly, it may result in creating VMs with an older or different version of OS than expected.

To redirect the traffic from HTTP to HTTPS, the web server configuration should be modified to include a rule that forces the HTTP requests to be redirected to HTTPS. This can be done by using the web server’s configuration file or a .htaccess file. The exact syntax may vary depending on the web server software, but the general idea is to use a rewrite rule that matches the HTTP protocol and changes it to HTTPS. For example, on Apache web server, the following code can be added to the .htaccess file:

RewriteEngine On

RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off

RewriteRule ^(.*)$ https://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} [L,R=301]

This code will check if the HTTPS is off, and if so, it will rewrite the URL to use HTTPS and redirect the client with a 301 status code, which means permanent redirection. This way, the clients will always use HTTPS to access the web application, and the links generated from the web application will be encrypted.

User account access (A) is not relevant to the redirection of HTTP to HTTPS, as it only controls who can access the web application. Programming code (B) may be used to generate the links with HTTPS, but it will not redirect the existing HTTP requests to HTTPS. Load balancer setting (D) may also be used to redirect the traffic to HTTPS, but it is not the most efficient or secure way, as it will add an extra layer of processing and expose the HTTP traffic to the load balancer. Therefore, web server configuration © is the best option to redirect the traffic to HTTPS.

B. Deduplication and D. Compression are the two options that the architect can use to provide more space without adding more capacity. Deduplication is the process of eliminating duplicate copies of data that are stored in different locations, thus reducing the storage consumption and costs1. Compression is the process of reducing the size of data by applying algorithms that remove redundant or unnecessary information, thus saving storage space and bandwidth2. Both deduplication and compression can improve the efficiency and performance of cloud storage solutions12.

The best storage type to deploy for the new file storage service is NVMe. NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express, and it is a protocol that allows faster access to data stored on solid state drives (SSDs). NVMe can deliver high performance, low latency, and parallelism for the file storage service. NVMe can also support fast read/write times for the targeted users, which is the key requirement for the project. Since the budget for the project is not a concern, NVMe can be a suitable choice for the file storage service. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud storage solutions.

The correct answer is D. Reduce the number of NFSv3 mounts to one.

NFSv3 is a network file system protocol that allows clients to access files stored on a remote server. NFSv3 uses TCP or UDP as the transport layer protocol, and typically runs on port 20491.

One of the known issues with NFSv3 mounts is that they can cause performance degradation and unresponsiveness on the client side if there are too many mounts or if there are network connectivity problems. This is because NFSv3 does not handle connection failures or timeouts gracefully, and may keep retrying to access the server indefinitely, blocking other processes or threads. This can result in slow disk speeds, high CPU usage, and system hangs23.

Therefore, one of the possible solutions to this issue is to reduce the number of NFSv3 mounts to one per hypervisor, instead of one per VM. This way, the hypervisor can manage the access to the shared storage appliance more efficiently, and avoid creating too many TCP connections or UDP packets that may overload the network or the server. Reducing the number of NFSv3 mounts can also simplify the configuration and troubleshooting of the network file system.

Increasing caching on the storage appliance may improve the read performance of the NFSv3 mounts, but it will not solve the underlying issue of connection failures or timeouts. Caching may also introduce data inconsistency or corruption issues if the cache is not synchronized with the server.

Configuring jumbo frames on the hypervisors and storage may improve the network throughput and efficiency of the NFSv3 mounts, but it will not solve the underlying issue of connection failures or timeouts. Jumbo frames are larger than standard Ethernet frames, and require that all devices on the network path support them. Jumbo frames may also introduce fragmentation or compatibility issues if they are not configured properly.

Increasing CPU/RAM resources on affected VMs may improve their performance in general, but it will not solve the underlying issue of connection failures or timeouts. Increasing CPU/RAM resources may also be costly and wasteful if they are not needed for other purposes.

Adding a deny rule to the network ACL is a common containment procedure for a security incident on an IaaS platform, as it can isolate the affected instance from the rest of the network and prevent further compromise or data exfiltration. Connecting to an instance for triage, mirroring the traffic to perform a traffic capture, and performing a memory acquisition are more likely to be part of the analysis or evidence collection procedures, not the containment procedure.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, apply security configurations and compliance controls ; Cloud Security Mitigation | Cloud Computing | CompTIA1

Allocated guest resources is what the administrator should check next after receiving an email from the virtualized environment’s alarms indicating the memory was reaching full utilization and noticing that one out of a five-host cluster has a utilization of 500GB out of 512GB of RAM. Allocated guest resources are the amount of resources or capacity that are assigned or reserved for each guest system or device within a host system or device. Allocated guest resources can affect performance and utilization of host system or device by determining how much resources or capacity are available or used by each guest system or device. Allocated guest resources should be checked next by comparing them with the actual usage or demand of each guest system or device, as well as identifying any overallocation or underallocation of resources that may cause inefficiency or wastage.

Shutting down the environment after work hours is the best process to automate to reduce cost, as it will stop incurring charges for the cloud resources that are not needed outside of work hours. Scaling, implementing access control, or blocking external access may still incur some costs for the cloud resources that are running or reserved, even if they are not fully utilized. Shutting down the environment can be automated using scripts, schedules, or triggers that can turn off or deallocate the cloud resources based on time or usage criteria12.

Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical links into a logical link that provides higher bandwidth and redundancy. Link aggregation can help address the issue of a physical switchport that is connected to a virtualization host using all available bandwidth by increasing the capacity and availability of the connection. Link aggregation can also balance the traffic load across the links and improve the fault tolerance of the network. Link aggregation can be implemented using protocols such as LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) or static configuration. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot network connectivity issues.

This error indicates that the SSH client has detected a change in the server’s RSA key, which is used to authenticate the server and establish a secure connection. The SSH client stores the fingerprints of the servers it has previously connected to in a file called known_hosts, which is usually located in the ~/.ssh directory. When the SSH client tries to connect to a server, it compares the fingerprint of the server’s RSA key with the one stored in the known_hosts file. If they match, the connection proceeds. If they do not match, the SSH client warns the user of a possible man-in-the-middle attack or a host key change, and aborts the connection.

The most likely cause of this error is that the deployment script has recreated the server with a new RSA key, which does not match the one stored in the known_hosts file. This can happen when a server is reinstalled, cloned, or migrated. To resolve this error, the administrator needs to remove or update the old fingerprint from the known_hosts file, and accept the new fingerprint when connecting to the server again. Alternatively, the administrator can use a tool or service that can synchronize or manage the RSA keys across multiple servers, such as AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) 1, Azure Key Vault 2, or HashiCorp Vault 3.

According to the CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide1, scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the size or capacity of a cloud service”. There are two main types of scaling: horizontal and vertical.

Horizontal scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the number of instances or nodes of a cloud service”. This means that horizontal scaling can add or remove servers or virtual machines to a cloud service, depending on the workload demand. Horizontal scaling can improve availability, reliability, and performance, but it can also increase complexity and cost.

Vertical scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the resources allocated to an instance or node of a cloud service”. This means that vertical scaling can add or remove CPU, memory, disk, or network resources to a server or virtual machine, depending on the workload demand. Vertical scaling can improve performance and efficiency, but it can also have limitations and risks.

Cloud bursting is “a technique that allows a private cloud to use public cloud resources when it reaches its capacity limit”. This means that cloud bursting can extend the private cloud to the public cloud when there is a peak in demand that exceeds the private cloud resources. Cloud bursting can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost savings, but it can also introduce challenges such as security, compatibility, and latency.

Autoscaling is “the ability to automatically increase or decrease the number of resources allocated to a cloud service based on the current demand”. This means that autoscaling can adjust the size or capacity of a cloud service without human intervention, using predefined rules or policies. Autoscaling can optimize performance, availability, and cost, but it can also require careful monitoring and configuration.

Based on this information, I think the best answer to your question is C. Cloud bursting. Cloud bursting can help the company utilize its private cloud for the new application and also access public cloud resources when the private cloud resources can only meet 75% of the application’s requirements. This way, the company can accommodate 100% of the application’s requirements without having to purchase extra computing resources for their private cloud.

I hope this helps you understand the concept of cloud bursting better. If you want to learn more about CompTIA Cloud+, you can check out some of these resources:

• CompTIA Cloud+ : Cloud High Availability & Scaling: A video course that covers the topics of high availability and scaling in cloud environments, including autoscaling, horizontal scaling, vertical scaling and cloud bursting.
• Cloud+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: The official website of CompTIA Cloud+, where you can find exam details, preparation materials, renewal information and more.

A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that combines the latest full backup with all the subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup. This type of backup will back up all the data from each VM daily while also saving space, as it does not require a new full backup every time and only transfers the changed data from the incremental backups. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, implement backup, restore, disaster recovery and business continuity measures.

The best options to implement for a public cloud solution for an existing application using lift and shift that requires scalability and external access are a load balancer and a VPN (virtual private network). A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, capacity, or performance. A load balancer can improve scalability by balancing the workload and optimizing resource utilization. A VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN can provide external access by allowing remote users or sites to connect to the cloud resources as if they were on the same private network. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.4 Given a scenario, execute a provided deployment plan.

The fastest way to restore the service after deploying a new application release to the green stack of a blue-green infrastructure model and making the green stack primary is to failback to the blue stack. Failing back means switching back to the previous version of the application that is running on the blue stack, which is still available and functional. This will minimize the downtime and impact on the users, while allowing the systems administrator to troubleshoot and fix the issues on the green stack. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, troubleshoot deployment issues.

A CDN (content delivery network) is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server1. A CDN can improve the user experience by reducing the latency, bandwidth, and load on the origin server. By offloading the images to an object storage, such as Google Cloud Storage or Amazon S3, the web application can save costs and improve performance by storing and serving the images from a CDN edge location that is closer to the user2. A CDN can also provide caching, compression, and security features for the web content3.

Deduplication is a technique that reduces the storage space by eliminating duplicate data blocks and replacing them with pointers to the original data. Deduplication can help free up the host filesystem by removing redundant data and increasing the storage efficiency. Deduplication can be performed at the source or the target, and it can be applied at the file or block level. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 4, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common storage issues.

Volume-based licensing is a model where the cost of the software is based on the number of licenses purchased1. This model is commonly used for software that is installed on a specific number of devices, such as antivirus software or office productivity suites1. Therefore, the number of machines is the most important factor when considering licensing costs in this model.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast various cloud service models ; Cloud+ Exam CV0-003: CompTIA Cloud+ Licensing Models1

To allow communication between the on-premises and cloud subnets, the firewall traffic should be allowed to pass through the additional subnet for communication, which is 192.168.5.0/24. This subnet acts as a bridge between the two networks and should have firewall rules that permit traffic from and to both sides.

References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide], page 181.

A production snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a production server or instance. It can be used to restore the server or instance to the exact state it was in when the snapshot was taken, in case of a failure, error, or corruption. A production snapshot can help to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises during an application upgrade, as it can revert the changes made by the upgrade and restore the previous version of the application. A production snapshot can also preserve the configuration and settings of the server or instance, as well as the application data and dependencies. A production snapshot is different from a backup, which is a copy of the data only, and may not include the state or configuration of the server or instance. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Deploying a Cloud Environment, page 75-76; Snapshots vs Backups: Key Differences and Similarities.

The answer is C. Leverage a staging environment that is tightly controlled for showcasing. A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used for testing and demonstrating the final product before deployment. A staging environment can help the web consultancy group avoid the issues reported by the customers, such as mismatched expectations and unexpected behavior, by ensuring that the product is shown in a realistic and consistent setting. A staging environment can also help the group catch and fix any bugs or errors before they affect the live site.

Some possible sources of information about web development environments are:

• 7 Web Development Best Practices: This page provides some general tips and best practices for web development, such as planning, accessibility, UX/UI, standards, code quality, compatibility, and security.
• Web Development Best Practices (Building Real-World Cloud Apps with Azure): This page explains some specific best practices for web development in the cloud environment, such as stateless web tier, session state management, CDN caching, and async programming.
• Web Development Best Practices: This page lists some resources for learning web development best practices in ASP.NET, such as async and await, building real-world cloud apps with Azure, and hands-on labs.

The best answer is D. Metrics and time-series data measuring key performance indicators.

Metrics and time-series data are numerical values that represent the state and behavior of a system over time. They can measure key performance indicators (KPIs) such as availability, latency, throughput, error rate, and resource utilization. Metrics and time-series data can help a cloud administrator to monitor, analyze, and troubleshoot the performance characteristics of an application .

Metrics and time-series data are most likely to be used in a reporting dashboard, because they can provide a clear and concise overview of the application’s performance. A reporting dashboard is a graphical user interface that displays the most important information about a system or a process in a single view. A reporting dashboard can help a cloud administrator to:

Visualize the trends and patterns of the metrics and time-series data using charts, graphs, tables, or gauges .

Compare the actual performance of the application with the expected or desired performance based on the defined service level objectives (SLOs) or service level agreements (SLAs) .

Identify and diagnose any performance issues or anomalies that may affect the reliability of the application .

Communicate and report the performance status and results to the stakeholders or customers.

The other options are not as likely to be used in a reporting dashboard, because they are either too detailed, too outdated, or too irrelevant for measuring the performance characteristics of the application. For example:

Data from files containing error messages from the application (A) may help to identify and debug some specific errors or exceptions that occur in the application. However, they are not sufficient to measure the overall performance or reliability of the application. They are also too verbose and unstructured to be displayed in a reporting dashboard.

Results from the last performance and workload testing (B) may help to evaluate and optimize the performance of the application under different scenarios and conditions. However, they are not representative of the current or real-time performance of the application in production. They are also too static and outdated to be displayed in a reporting dashboard.

Detail log data from syslog files of the application © may help to record and track the events and activities that happen in the application. However, they are not designed to measure the key performance indicators or metrics of the application. They are also too complex and voluminous to be displayed in a reporting dashboard.

Backup as a service (BaaS) is the best approach for changing the backup strategy to minimize manual intervention after a data loss due to an on-premises file-server crash. BaaS is a cloud-based service that provides backup and recovery solutions for customers’ data and systems. BaaS can automate and simplify backup processes by using cloud storage, encryption, deduplication, compression, scheduling, etc., without requiring customers to purchase or maintain backup hardware or software.

Network latency is the first thing that the administrator should check while troubleshooting slowness when saving files after a file server VM was moved to another region in a globally distributed cloud environment. Network latency is a measure of how long it takes for data to travel from one point to another over a network or connection. Network latency can affect performance and user experience of cloud applications or services by determining how fast data can be transferred or processed between clients and servers or vice versa. Network latency can vary depending on various factors, such as distance, bandwidth, congestion, interference, etc. Network latency can increase when a file server VM is moved to another region in a globally distributed cloud environment, as it may increase the distance and decrease the bandwidth between clients and servers, which may result in delays or errors in data transfer or processing.

A hybrid cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that combines two or more different types of clouds, such as public, private, or community clouds, into a single integrated environment. A hybrid cloud can meet the requirements for implementing cloud services with SSO to cloud infrastructure, on-premises directory service, and RBAC for IT staff, as it can provide flexibility, scalability, and security for cloud-based and on-premises resources. A hybrid cloud can also enable seamless and secure access to cloud infrastructure using SSO with directory service federation, as well as granular and consistent control over IT staff permissions using RBAC across different cloud environments. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, section 1.2

RAID 5 is a disk array configuration that uses parity to provide fault tolerance and data recovery. RAID 5 can tolerate the failure of one disk, but not two or more disks. If a second disk fails during the resynchronization process, the data on the RAID 5 array will be lost and unrecoverable. The only way to make the server fully operational is to restore the data from a backup source.

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is what would best meet the requirement of moving an environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in. Vendor lock-in is a situation where customers become dependent on or tied to a specific vendor or provider for their products or services, and face difficulties

Storage live migration is the best restoration method to restore a VM from backup without changing the current VM’s operating state. Storage live migration is a process of moving or transferring storage resources or data from one location to another without affecting or interrupting the operation or performance of the VMs that use them. Storage live migration can help to restore a VM from backup by copying the backup data to a new storage location and switching the VM’s storage configuration to point to the new location, without requiring any downtime or reboot.

New web nodes are not operational is the most likely cause of the issue of website being intermittently unavailable after adding servers to a round-robin, load-balanced pool. A round-robin, load-balanced pool is a method of distributing network traffic evenly and sequentially among multiple servers or nodes that provide the same service or function. A round-robin, load-balanced pool can help to improve performance, availability, and scalability of network applications or services by ensuring that no server or node is overloaded or underutilized. New web nodes are not operational if they are not configured properly or functioning correctly to provide web service or function. New web nodes are not operational can cause website being intermittently unavailable by disrupting the round-robin, load-balanced pool and creating inconsistency or unreliability in web service or function.

SR-IOV (Single Root Input/Output Virtualization) is what would best satisfy the requirements of low-latency, near-native performance of a physical NIC and data protection between VMs for multiple network I/O-intensive VMs. SR-IOV is a technology that allows a physical NIC to be partitioned into multiple virtual NICs that can be assigned to different VMs. SR-IOV can provide the following benefits:

• Low-latency: SR-IOV can reduce latency by bypassing the hypervisor and allowing direct communication between the VMs and the physical NIC, without any overhead or interference.
• Near-native performance: SR-IOV can provide near-native performance by allowing the VMs to use the full capacity and functionality of the physical NIC, without any emulation or translation.
• Data protection: SR-IOV can provide data protection by isolating and securing the network traffic between the VMs and the physical NIC, without any exposure or leakage.

Containers are the best approach to design a new machine-learning platform that needs to be portable between public and private clouds and should be kept as small as possible. Containers are isolated environments that can run applications and their dependencies without interfering with other processes or systems. Containers are lightweight, portable, and scalable, which makes them ideal for machine-learning applications. Containers can be moved easily between public and private clouds without requiring any changes or modifications. Containers can also reduce the size and complexity of applications by using only the necessary components and libraries.

Ordering a direct link to the provider is the fastest solution to resolve the issue of slow response times from an intranet website that is hosted on a cloud platform. A direct link is a dedicated, high-bandwidth, low-latency connection between the customer’s network and the cloud provider’s network. It bypasses the public internet and provides better performance, security, and reliability. Examples of direct links are AWS Direct Connect, Azure ExpressRoute, Google Cloud Interconnect, etc.

Creating a VPN tunnel is the first action that the engineer should perform to prepare for server migrations and establish connectivity between clouds. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunnel is a secure and encrypted connection that allows data to be transferred between two networks or locations over the public internet. Creating a VPN tunnel can enable communication and interoperability between different cloud environments, as well as protect data from interception or modification during migration.

Thin provisioning is the technique that ensures disk space is not allocated to the VM until it is needed. Thin provisioning is a storage allocation method that assigns disk space to a VM on demand, rather than in advance. Thin provisioning can improve storage utilization and efficiency by avoiding overprovisioning and wasting disk space. Thin provisioning can also allow for more flexibility and scalability of storage resources.

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides fully managed applications to the end users. The users do not have to worry about installing, updating, or maintaining the software, as the cloud provider handles all these tasks. Examples of SaaS are Gmail, Office 365, Salesforce, etc.

A VM import connector is a tool that allows you to import virtual machines from your on-premises environment into the cloud using a graphical user interface. This is the fastest and easiest way to migrate a legacy web application without requiring installation media or changing the configuration of the VM. The VM import connector can also handle the disk size and network bandwidth limitations of the on-premises VM environment. References: EC2 VM Import Connector | AWS News Blog, Import a VMware Virtual Machine to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Deployment, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, execute and implement solutions using appropriate cloud migration tools and methods.

Database replication is the best technique to migrate databases from an on-premises IaaS-hosted environment to a public DBaaS solution. Database replication is a process of copying data from one database server to another database server in real-time or near real-time. Database replication can ensure data consistency and availability across different locations and platforms. Database replication can facilitate migration by synchronizing data between on-premises databases and cloud databases.

Deploying two firewalls in a HA (High Availability) configuration is the best option to ensure all traffic passes through the firewall and meets the SLA (Service Level Agreement) of 99.999%. HA is a design principle that aims to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of a system or service. HA can be achieved by using redundancy, failover, load balancing, clustering, etc. Two firewalls in a HA configuration can provide redundancy and failover in case one firewall fails or becomes overloaded.

Artificial intelligence (AI) is the technology that, when used in conjunction with cloud services, would facilitate the best solution for finding content in images. AI is a branch of computer science that aims to create machines or systems that can perform tasks that normally require human intelligence, such as reasoning, learning, decision making, etc. AI can be used to analyze images and extract information such as objects, faces, text, emotions, etc., using techniques such as computer vision, machine learning, natural language processing, etc. AI can help to find content in images faster, more accurately, and more efficiently than manual methods.

The best method to maintain data confidentiality after discovering that the servers have been compromised and sensitive files have been exfiltrated is encryption. Encryption is a process that transforms data into an unreadable format using an algorithm and a key. Encryption can protect data at rest, in transit, or in use from unauthorized access, tampering, or leakage. The systems administrator should encrypt the sensitive files and their backups using strong encryption algorithms and keys, and also encrypt the network traffic using protocols such as SSL or IPSec. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

 The best storage technology to configure for maximum performance and redundancy is RAID 10 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks 10). RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping) that provides both fault tolerance and improved performance. RAID 10 divides and replicates the data across multiple disks in pairs, creating mirrored sets, and then stripes the data across those sets, creating a striped set. RAID 10 can withstand multiple disk failures as long as they are not in the same mirrored set, and can also increase the read and write speed by parallelizing the disk operations. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

The most likely cause of one machine being unable to handle requests after deploying a new three-host cluster with identical resource allocations is that it has an overwhelmed vCPU (virtual CPU). An overwhelmed vCPU means that there is more demand for CPU resources than what is available on the host or VM. This could result in poor performance, high latency, or errors for the applications or processes that run on that machine. The systems administrator should monitor the CPU utilization and load on each machine and adjust them accordingly to balance the workload. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot capacity issues within a cloud environment.

The best solution to simplify management of a more complex DNS and DHCP environment for a company that has grown over the last couple of years is IPAM (IP address management). IPAM is a tool or service that allows centralized management and automation of DNS and DHCP functions, such as IP address allocation, reservation, release, or renewal, as well as domain name registration or resolution. IPAM can also provide monitoring, auditing, reporting, and security features for DNS and DHCP resources. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations.

MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) is a security technique that requires the user to present two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity when they try to access a system or an application. For example, a password and a physical token, or a fingerprint and a one-time code. MFA can improve the company’s security posture by preventing unauthorized access even if the password or single-factor authentication is compromised, as the attacker would also need to have the other factors to log in. According to the web search results, MFA can prevent 99.9% of account attacks1.

SSO (Single Sign-On) is a system that allows the user to use one set of login credentials to access multiple systems and applications that previously may have each required their own logins. SSO can improve productivity and user convenience, but it does not replace MFA. In fact, SSO works in conjunction with MFA, as it can enforce MFA for all the systems and applications that are integrated with SSO2. Therefore, implementing SSO does not mean that MFA is not needed.

Scalability is the ability of a system to handle increasing or decreasing demand by adding or removing resources accordingly. According to the web search results, scalability is one of the main benefits of using containers in a cloud environment, as containers are lightweight, portable, and independent units of software that can run on any compatible host . A containerized cluster is a group of hosts that run multiple containers and share resources and services. A containerized cluster can scale up or down easily by adding or removing hosts or containers as needed, without affecting the functionality or performance of the applications .

The inbound rule that the security team identified as a potential vulnerability is the one that allows SSH access (port 22) from any source (0.0.0.0/0). This means that anyone on the internet can try to connect to the Linux servers using SSH, which poses a risk of unauthorized access or brute-force attacks. The cloud administrator, who is working remotely, logs in to the cloud management console and modifies the rule to set the source to “My IP”. This means that only the administrator’s IP address can connect to the Linux servers using SSH, which improves the security of the servers. However, this also prevents other authorized users, such as the internal developer, from accessing the servers using SSH, as they have different IP addresses than the administrator. Therefore, the administrator needs to modify the rule again to allow more sources for SSH access.

The best option for both the developer and the administrator to access the server from their locations is to modify the inbound rule to allow the company’s external IP address as a source. This means that only the IP addresses that belong to the company’s network can connect to the Linux servers using SSH, which reduces the attack surface and ensures that only authorized users can access the servers. The company’s external IP address can be obtained by using a web service such as [What Is My IP Address?] or [IP Location]. The administrator can then enter this IP address or its CIDR notation in the source field of the inbound rule.

The best way to prevent two virtual database servers from being on the same host is to configure anti-affinity. Anti-affinity is a feature that allows specifying which VMs or applications should not run on the same host or cluster. This can improve availability, performance, and security by avoiding resource contention, single point of failure, or interference between VMs or applications. The systems administrator should create an anti-affinity rule or policy for the two virtual database servers to ensure they are placed on different hosts. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

The correct answer is D. Migrate the data to flash storage. Flash storage is a type of solid-state storage that uses flash memory to store data. Flash storage has much faster performance and lower latency than NL-SAS storage, which is a type of hard disk drive that uses nearline serial attached SCSI interface. According to the web search results, NL-SAS devices have much higher response times than flash devices123. Therefore, migrating the data to flash storage can reduce the application latency and improve the user experience. Increasing the capacity of the data storage, migrating the data to SAS storage, or increasing the CPU of the VM are not likely to solve the latency issue, as they do not address the root cause of the problem, which is the slow performance of NL-SAS storage. For more information on flash storage and its benefits, you can refer to the Dell EMC Unity: FAST Technology Overview2 or the Dell Technologies website4.

The most suitable hashing algorithm from a performance perspective to maintain file integrity checks on a cloud object store is MD5 (Message Digest 5). MD5 is a hashing algorithm that generates a 128-bit hash value for any given input data. MD5 is faster and more efficient than other hashing algorithms, such as SHA-256 or SHA-512, which generate longer hash values and require more computational resources. MD5 can be used to verify the integrity of files by comparing their hash values before and after transmission or storage. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

The best way to resolve the issue where the autoscaling configuration is creating a new VM every five minutes after deploying a new CI/CD tool to automate new releases of the web application and configuring a script to be executed by the VMs during bootstrapping is to debug the script and redeploy it. Debugging the script means finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the code or logic of the script that may cause unexpected or undesired behavior, such as triggering the autoscaling condition or failing to complete the bootstrapping process. Redeploying the script means updating or replacing the existing script with the corrected or improved version of the script. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot automation/orchestration issues.

Microsegmentation is a type of network security technique that divides a network into smaller logical segments or zones based on workload or application characteristics and applies granular policies and rules to control and isolate traffic within each segment or zone. Implementing microsegmentation on the network can help prevent lateral movement in the future after lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure, as it can limit the exposure and spread of malware by restricting access and communication between different segments or zones based on predefined criteria such as identity, role, or behavior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

A .yaml file is a common file type for defining the configuration and deployment of application containers in a cloud environment. YAML stands for YAML Ain’t Markup Language, and it is a human-readable data serialization language that uses indentation and keywords to represent the structure and values of the data1. A .yaml file can specify the properties of the container, such as the image, ports, environment variables, volumes, resources, and scaling rules. For example, to modify the replication factor of an automated application container from 3 to 5, the systems administrator can edit the .yaml file on the master controller and change the value of the replicas field under the spec section2. For example:

apiVersion: apps/v1 kind: Deployment metadata: name: my-app spec: replicas: 5 # change this value from 3 to 5 selector: matchLabels: app: my-app template: metadata: labels: app: my-app spec: containers: - name: my-app image: my-app-image ports: - containerPort: 80

A .txt file is a plain text file that can store any kind of text data, but it is not a standard format for defining container configurations. A .conf file is a configuration file that can store settings and parameters for various applications or services, but it is not commonly used for container deployments. A .etcd file is not a valid file type, but etcd is a distributed key-value store that provides a reliable way to store data across a cluster of machines3. Etcd is often used by Kubernetes, a popular platform for managing containerized applications, to store and synchronize the cluster state. However, etcd does not store the configuration files of the containers, but rather the runtime data of the cluster. Therefore, none of these options are correct.

Classification is a process of assigning labels or categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, or risk level. Classification can help implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies by identifying which data needs to be protected and how to protect it according to its classification level. Classification can also help comply with mandatory regulations by ensuring that data is handled and stored appropriately based on its legal or contractual requirements. Classification is essential for DLP to efficiently prevent the exposure of sensitive data in a cloud environment. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

RAID 1 is a type of RAID level that creates an exact copy or mirror of data on two or more disks. RAID 1 can provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as it can survive the failure of one disk without losing any data. RAID 1 can also improve read performance, as it can access data from multiple disks simultaneously. The administrator should configure RAID 1 to set up mirroring on a storage array. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

Long-term support (LTS) is a type of release cycle that provides extended support and maintenance for software products or operating systems. LTS releases typically have longer end-of-life dates than regular releases, as they receive security updates, bug fixes, and patches for several years after their initial release date. LTS releases can also offer higher stability, reliability, and compatibility than regular releases, as they undergo more testing and quality assurance processes before being released. LTS is the best OS build for a systems administrator to use when provisioning VMs in a cloud environment and being told to select an OS build with the furthest end-of-life date. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

Simultaneous multithreading (SMT) is a type of CPU technology that allows multiple threads to run concurrently on a single CPU core. Enabling SMT can help achieve the goal of having the VMs on the hypervisor share CPU resources on the same core when feasible, as it can increase the CPU utilization and efficiency by executing more instructions per cycle and reducing idle time or wasted cycles. Enabling SMT can also improve performance and throughput, as it can speed up processing and handle increased workload or demand. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

The drivers from the OS repository are the drivers that are included or available in the official software repository or package manager of the operating system. The drivers from the OS repository are most likely to ensure compatibility with all virtual workstations that use a GPU-accelerated VDI solution, as they are tested and verified to work with different versions of the operating system and the hardware. The drivers from the OS repository can also provide stability and security, as they are regularly updated and patched by the operating system vendor or community. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

The SA would do the other three regardless of the need to alter configurations. In this situation, the SA would have to present the change to the CCB in order to do the alteration.

There is no clarification on whether the change management process has been gone through. Any changes, regardless of how small or big, must go through the change management process. This allows proposals to be heard by end-users, management, and possibly stockholders. From there, it will be reviewed and either approved or denied, with reasons specified. From there, the administrator(s) can do whatever processes are necessary.

Change management is a process or procedure that defines the steps, roles, and responsibilities for implementing, documenting, and communicating any changes or updates to a system or service. Change management can help ensure that any changes or updates are done in a controlled and consistent manner, minimizing any risks or impacts to the system or service. Performing change management is the first thing that a systems administrator should do before altering the configuration of one of the finance department’s database servers, as it can ensure that the change request is approved, authorized, tested, and verified before applying it to the database server. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) protection is a type of security solution that detects and mitigates DDoS attacks that aim to overwhelm or disrupt a system or service by sending large volumes of traffic from multiple sources. DDoS protection can prevent such disruptive traffic from reaching the web servers by filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic and allowing only legitimate traffic to pass through. DDoS protection can also help maintain the availability and functionality of web services and applications during a DDoS attack. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Updating the web browser to the latest version is the first action that the user should do when experiencing a connection timeout error after the administrator configured a redirect from HTTP to HTTPS on the web server. Updating the web browser can ensure that it supports the latest security protocols and standards, such as TLS 1.2 or 1.3, which are required for HTTPS connections. If the web browser is outdated or incompatible with the security protocols or standards used by the web server, it may fail to establish a secure connection and result in a connection timeout error. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Checking in and committing are actions that save and update the changes made to a file or code in a version control system or repository. Checking in and committing can help track and synchronize the changes made by different users or developers working on the same file or code. The deployment script changes made by the first administrator were not checked in and committed is the most likely reason for the issue of the application load balancer being missing from the new deployment after a second administrator made some changes and ran the script. If the first administrator did not check in and commit the changes made to add an application load balancer to the script, then those changes would not be reflected or available in the latest version of the script used by the second administrator. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Deduplication is a type of data compression technique that eliminates redundant or duplicate data blocks or segments in a storage system or device. Configuring deduplication can help increase the amount of effective storage on a SAN that holds VM files and is running out of storage space, as it can reduce the storage space consumption and increase the storage space utilization by storing only unique data blocks or segments. Configuring deduplication can also improve performance and efficiency, as it can speed up data transfer and backup processes and save network bandwidth and power consumption. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

Disk I/O limits are restrictions or controls that limit the amount of disk input/output operations per second (IOPS) that a VM can perform on a storage device or system. CPU oversubscription is a situation where more CPU resources are allocated to VMs than are physically available on the host or server. Disk I/O limits and CPU oversubscription are most likely to cause VDI performance being very slow at the start of the workday, but fine during the rest of the day, as they can create bottlenecks or contention for disk and CPU resources when multiple users log in or launch their VDI sessions at the same time, resulting in increased latency or reduced throughput for VDI operations. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

Core-based licensing is a type of licensing model that charges based on the number of processor cores in a system or server. Core-based licensing is often used by software vendors to align their pricing with the performance and capacity of modern hardware. Core-based licensing can also enable customers to optimize their licensing costs by choosing the appropriate hardware configuration for their needs. Upgrading the processors in a web application host can affect the core-based licensing of the application, as it may increase the number of cores that need to be licensed. This can result in an alert regarding the license being out of compliance if the license is not updated accordingly. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 20, section 4.2

The network is the set of devices, connections, protocols, and configurations that enable communication and data transfer between different systems and applications. The network can affect the performance of storage throughput by influencing factors such as bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss, and congestion. Poor network performance can result in low storage throughput in both IOPS and MBps, as it can limit the amount and speed of data that can be sent or received by the storage devices. Verifying the network should be the next step for troubleshooting the issue of slow storage throughput on a few VMs in a private IaaS cloud, as it can help identify and resolve any network-related problems that may be causing the issue. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 17, section 3.4

Cloud Bursting can be used for both compute and storage. This question is about compute capability. "Compute Bursting" unleashes the high-performance compute capabilities of the cloud for processing locally created datasets. (reference: https://www.ctera.com/it-initiatives/cloud-bursting/ )

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/overview/what-is-cloud-bursting/

Replacing the equipment is the best action to take when a piece of networking equipment is about to reach its end of support. End of support means that the vendor or manufacturer will no longer provide technical assistance, updates, patches, or fixes for the equipment, which can affect its functionality, performance, security, and compatibility. Replacing the equipment with a newer model that has ongoing support can prevent any issues or risks associated with using outdated equipment. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 18, section 3.5

An access control list (ACL) is a set of rules that defines which traffic is allowed or denied between different network segments or devices. An ACL can be used to filter traffic based on various criteria, such as source and destination addresses, ports, protocols, and applications. Configuring an ACL between the VLANs of the finance and marketing departments is the most suitable method to meet the requirements of allowing HTTPS/HTTP and disabling FTP and SMB traffic. An ACL can specify which ports and protocols are permitted or blocked between the VLANs, such as allowing port 80 (HTTP) and port 443 (HTTPS), and denying port 21 (FTP) and port 445 (SMB). References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], page 15, section 2.8

A storage live migration is a process of moving or transferring data or files from one storage system or device to another without interrupting or affecting the availability or performance of the VMs or applications that use them. Performing a storage live migration can help migrate the data from a SAN that is being decommissioned to a new array, as it can ensure that there is no downtime or disruption for the VMs or applications that rely on the data or files stored on the SAN. Performing a storage live migration can also help maintain consistency and integrity, as it can synchronize and verify the data or files between the source and destination storage systems or devices. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

Vendor lock-in is a situation where a customer becomes dependent on a specific vendor for products or services and faces high switching costs or barriers when trying to change vendors. Vendor lock-in is most likely to be a concern for a company that developed a product using a cloud provider’s PaaS platform and many of the platform-based components within the application environment when utilizing a multicloud strategy or migrating to another cloud provider, as it can limit the flexibility, scalability, and portability of the product and increase the complexity, risk, and cost of moving or integrating with other cloud platforms or providers. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, section 1.2

An IP address management (IPAM) solution is a type of tool or system that automates and standardizes the allocation, tracking, and management of IP addresses in an IP network. An IPAM solution can help achieve ease of management for hosting a DNS domain with private and public IP ranges, as it can simplify and centralize the process of assigning and updating IP addresses for different DNS records or zones without manual intervention or errors. An IPAM solution can also help optimize DNS performance and security, as it can monitor and report any issues or conflicts related to IP addresses or DNS records. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as it can survive the failure of up to two disks without losing any data. RAID 6 can also support large data sets and high-capacity disks, as it can offer more usable space and better performance than other RAID levels with similar features, such as RAID 5 or RAID 10. RAID 6 is the best RAID level for a systems administrator to use when deploying a new storage array for backups that provides 1PB of raw disk space and uses 14TB nearline SAS drives and must tolerate at least two failed drives in a single RAID set. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

Federation is a type of authentication mechanism that allows users to access multiple systems or applications across different domains or organizations with a single login credential. Federation can help configure SSO authentication in a hybrid cloud environment, as it can enable seamless and secure access to cloud-based and on-premises resources using the same identity provider and authentication method. Federation can also improve user convenience, productivity, and security, as it can simplify the login process, reduce login errors, and enhance password management. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

An application programming interface (API) is a set of rules or protocols that defines how different systems or applications can communicate or interact with each other. An API version is a specific iteration or release of an API that may have different features or functionalities than previous or subsequent versions. API version incompatibility is the most likely cause of the script failure when switching hosting companies and using the same script that was previously used to deploy VMs in the new cloud, as it can result in errors or failures when trying to execute commands or functions that are not supported or recognized by the new cloud provider’s API version. The issue can be resolved by updating or modifying the script to match the new cloud provider’s API version. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Mandatory access control (MAC) is a type of access control model that enforces strict security policies based on predefined rules and labels. MAC assigns security labels to subjects (users or processes) and objects (files or resources) and allows access only if the subject has the appropriate clearance and need-to-know for the object. MAC can mitigate the risk of users who have access to an instance modifying the system configurations, as it can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to critical files or settings by restricting access based on predefined rules and labels. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Setting custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds is the best option to execute the task of monitoring the expense of the company’s cloud resources with minimal effort, as it can automate and simplify the process of tracking and alerting the cloud administrator about any overspending or wastage of cloud resources. Setting custom notifications can also help optimize the cost and performance of cloud resources, as it can enable timely and proactive actions to adjust or optimize the resource allocation or consumption based on the budget limits. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol that enables monitoring and managing network devices and components in an IP network. SNMP can help monitor all computer, storage, and network components of a private cloud environment, as it can collect and report information about their status, performance, configuration, and events. SNMP can also help troubleshoot and optimize the private cloud environment, as it can detect and alert any issues or anomalies related to the network devices and components. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Instructions per cycle (IPC) is a metric that measures how many instructions a CPU can execute in one clock cycle. IPC can help identify the CPU with more computational power when comparing two CPU models that have the same number of cores/threads and run at the same clock speed, as it indicates the efficiency and performance of the CPU architecture and design. A higher IPC means that the CPU can process more instructions in less time, resulting in faster and better performance. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4

A digital signature is a type of cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation of an electronic message or document. A digital signature can help configure an email client to ensure data integrity of the email messages, as it can prove that the email message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission by using a mathematical algorithm to generate a unique code (signature) based on the content and identity of the sender. A digital signature can also help prevent spoofing, phishing, or impersonation attacks, as it can confirm that the email message originates from a legitimate source. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

ROUTE PRINT is a command that displays the routing table of a system, which shows the destination network, the gateway, the interface, and the metric for each route. ROUTE PRINT can help identify the issue of the weekly backup failing for this server, as it can show if there is a valid route to the network backup segment (10.20.0.0/25) from the production traffic segment (10.10.0.0/24). If there is no route or an incorrect route, the backup will fail to reach the destination. The administrator can use ROUTE PRINT to verify and troubleshoot the routing configuration of the server. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16, section 3.2