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CTFL-Foundation Exam Dumps - ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level

Question # 4

What is the value of static code analysis?

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

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Question # 5

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

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Question # 6

When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

A.

Regression testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing

D.

None of the above

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Question # 7

What is the benefit of independent testing?

A.

More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.

B.

Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers

C.

Independent testers do not need extra education and training.

D.

Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

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Question # 8

The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.

i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.

ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.

iii. Designing the test environment set-up.

iv. Developing and prioritizing test cases.

v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.

Which statement below is TRUE?

A.

(i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

B.

(i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

C.

(i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.

D.

(i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

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Question # 9

Which of the following is true about the V-model?

A.

It has the same steps as the waterfall model for software development.

B.

It is referred to as a cyclical model for software development.

C.

It enables the production of a working version of the system as early as possible.

D.

It enables test planning to start as early as possible.

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Question # 10

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

A.

Use automation tool for testing

B.

Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

C.

Both a and b

D.

None of the above

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Question # 11

Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?

A.

Underestimating the demand for a tool.

B.

The purchase price of the tool.

C.

No agreed requirements for the tool.

D.

The cost of resources to implement and maintain the tool.

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Question # 12

What is the main purpose of use case testing?

A.

To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.

B.

To identify defects in the connections between components.

C.

To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.

D.

To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.

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Question # 13

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Question # 14

Which of the following types of test tool are most likely to include traceability functions?

(i) Performance testing tool

(ii) Requirements management tool

(iii) Configuration management tool

(iv) Static analysis tool

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Question # 15

When is testing complete?

A.

When time and budget are exhausted.

B.

When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.

C.

When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding.

D.

When every data combination has been exercised successfully.

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Question # 16

In the MASPAR case study..?

A.

Security failures were the result of untested parts of code

B.

The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system

C.

An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost every input value to find its two special-case failures

D.

All the above

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Question # 17

Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase..?

A.

Schedules and deliverables

B.

Hardware and software

C.

Entry and exit criteria

D.

Types of test cases

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Question # 18

Which of the following are static techniques?

A.

Walkthrough.

B.

State transition testing.

C.

Decision table testing.

D.

Statement testing.

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Question # 19

Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?

A.

Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.

B.

Test cases are derived systematically from the tester's experience.

C.

Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

D.

Test cases are derived from the developers' experience.

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Question # 20

What do static analysis tools analyze?

A.

Design

B.

Test cases

C.

Requirements

D.

Program code

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Question # 21

What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?

(i) Executing component integration tests.

(ii) Static analysis.

(iii) Setting up the test environment.

(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Question # 22

Consider the following pseudo code:

1 Begin

2 Read Time

3 If Time < 12 Then

4 Print(Time, "am")

5 Endif

6 If Time > 12 Then

7 Print(Time −12, "pm")

8 Endif

9 If Time = 12 Then

10 Print (Time, "noon")

11 Endif

12 End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 23

Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team?

A.

Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures.

B.

Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as quickly as possible.

C.

Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough testing.

D.

Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected

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Question # 24

To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

A.

Stub

B.

Driver

C.

Proxy

D.

None of the above

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Question # 25

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A.

Top down

B.

Big-bang

C.

Bottom up

D.

Functional incrementation.

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Question # 26

Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.

ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.

iii) Assigning resources.

iv) Building the test environment.

v) Writing test conditions.

A.

i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.

B.

ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.

C.

iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.

D.

i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

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Question # 27

Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?

A.

Unit testing, system testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.

B.

System testing, unit testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.

C.

Acceptance testing, system testing, maintenance testing, unit testing.

D.

Unit testing, maintenance testing, system testing, acceptance testing.

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Question # 28

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

A.

When the code is complete.

B.

When the design is complete.

C.

When the software requirements have been approved.

D.

When the first code module is ready for unit testing

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Question # 29

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Question # 30

Which of the following are most likely to be used when developing a test strategy or test approach?

(i) Failure-based approach

(ii)Test specification approach

(iii) Model-based approach

(iv)Finance-based approach

A.

(iii) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (i)

D.

(i) and (iii)

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Question # 31

Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.

ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data

iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.

iv. Create the Test Specifications

A.

i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

B.

ii, iii, iv is true and i is false

C.

i is true and ii, iii, iv are false

D.

iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

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Question # 32

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

A.

Informal review.

B.

Management review.

C.

Inspection.

D.

Walkthrough

E.

Technical Review

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Question # 33

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Question # 34

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Question # 35

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Question # 36

Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Question # 37

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Question # 38

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

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Question # 39

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

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Question # 40

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Question # 41

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Question # 42

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Question # 43

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

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Question # 44

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

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Question # 45

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

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Question # 46

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

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Question # 47

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

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Question # 48

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

A.

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

C.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

D.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

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Question # 49

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

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Question # 50

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Question # 51

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Question # 52

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

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Question # 53

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Question # 54

What can testing demonstrate?

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

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Question # 55

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Question # 56

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

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Question # 57

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Question # 58

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

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Question # 59

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

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Question # 60

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Question # 61

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

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Question # 62

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

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Question # 63

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

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Question # 64

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

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Question # 65

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

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Question # 66

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Question # 67

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Question # 68

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

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Question # 69

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

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Question # 70

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

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Question # 71

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Question # 72

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Question # 73

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

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Question # 74

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

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Question # 75

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

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Question # 76

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Question # 77

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Question # 78

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

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Question # 79

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Question # 80

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Question # 81

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

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