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CTAL-TM_Syll2012 Exam Dumps - ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012]

Question # 4

Reviews

You are the Test Manager of a project that adopts a V-model with four formal levels of testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance testing.

On this project reviews have been conducted for each development phase prior to testing, which is to say that reviews of requirements, functional specification, high-level design, low-level design and code have been performed prior to testing.

Assume that no requirements defects have been reported after the release of the product.

Which TWO of the following metrics do you need in order to evaluate the requirements reviews in terms of phase containment effectiveness?

Number of correct responses: 2

K32 credits

A.

Number of defects found during the requirements review

B.

Total number of defects attributable to requirements found during unit, integration, system and acceptance testing

C.

Total number of defects found during functional specification review, high-level design review, low-level design review, code review, unit testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing

D.

Time to conduct the requirements review

E.

Total number of defects attributable to requirements, found during functional specification review, high-level design review, low-level design review, code review, unit testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing

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Question # 5

Reviews

Consider the following list of statements about audits and management reviews:

I. Audits are usually more effective than management reviews at finding defects

II. Audits and management reviews have the same main goals, the only difference is related to the roles and level of formality

III. A typical outcome of an audit includes observations and recommendations, corrective actions and a pass/fail assessment

IV. An audit is not the appropriate mechanism to use at the code review in order to detect defects prior to dynamic testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

I. and III. are true; II. and IV. are false;

B.

II. and III are true; I. and IV. are false;

C.

III. and IV. are true; I and II are false;

D.

I, III and IV are true; II. is false;

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Question # 6

Reviews

Which of the following factors could negatively influence a review?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

Include people with the adequate level of knowledge, both technical and procedural

B.

Include people who are detail-oriented and scrupulous at finding issues

C.

Include as many people as possible in order to have more viewpoints about possible problems on the item under review

D.

Include people able to contribute to a clear, thoughtful, constructive and objective discussion

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Question # 7

Reviews

You are a Test Manager working for a software organization where reviews have never been applied. After a meeting with your managers examining a business case for reviews, (including their costs, benefits, and potential issues), the management finally decides to adopt formal reviews for future projects.

You have been given a budget that you have spent to provide training in the review process and to introduce the review process on a pilot project.

On that pilot project the introduction of reviews has been very positive in terms of positive involvement from all the participants. All the reviews applied to different documents have been very effective for their purposes (especially at revealing defects).

Which of the following answers describes an important success factor for the introduction of formal reviews which is missing in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K43 credits

A.

Management support

B.

Participant support

C.

Definition and use of metrics to measure the ROI (Return On Investment)

D.

Training in the review process

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Question # 8

The following are the requirements identified as “critical”:

REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to define an item to purchase

REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart

REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit voucher

REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the available credit already charged on the smartcard

REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)

REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the “select” and “purchase” pages going back to the “browse” page (anonymous navigation)

Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as “critical”:

QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than 10 sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users

Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identified:

TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase

TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart

TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item

TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard

What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and EXCR2 exit criteria?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 9

Testing Process

The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:

EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at least one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).

EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.

EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: “C” (critical defect) and “NC” (non-critical defect). No known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.

Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases

B.

A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the defect tracking system

C.

A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the defect tracking system

D.

The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool

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Question # 10

The following is the unique “critical” quality risk item that has been identified:

CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user

Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identified:

TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes

TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order

TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user

Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the requirements and the single risk item identified in that scenario.

Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the REQ-SEL-4 requirement?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

A.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed

B.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed

C.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the "Invalid number of bottles" message is displayed

D.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles

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Question # 11

Which of the following is a factor that is likely to increase the test estimate? [1]

A.

Use of a new technology

B.

A requirement for high level test documentation

C.

Assigned personnel who are experienced on working with similar projects in similar environments

D.

Static test data

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Question # 12

The test team is using a distributed model for testing.

What is the primary factor you should consider with this model? [1]

A.

Alignment of methodologies

B.

Co-location of test team

C.

Provision of growth opportunities for the individual testers

D.

Planned vs. actual hours

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Question # 13

Your Project Manager has challenged you to come up with a process improvement strategy using the IDEAL model.

Which step within the process defines the success criteria? [2]

A.

Entrance

B.

Analysis

C.

Diagnosing

D.

Initiation

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Question # 14

Which of the following organizational structures would be considered unorthodox? [1]

A.

Developers within the same team unit test each others' code prior to handing over to a separate testing team for system testing

B.

Developers and testers are integrated within the same project team, each role focusing on a different level of testing

C.

After developers are done unit testing, business analysts alpha test the system before handing over to a separate testing team for system testing

D.

DBAs confirm the referential integrity of the database and developers complete their unit testing before handing over to

external organization for system testing

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Question # 15

Your test team has created a custom automation tool that will be used for an upcoming release. Now that the tool has been coded, what

should be the next step? [1]

A.

Create the tool support guide

B.

Perform an ROI study

C.

Compare the new tool to open source tools

D.

Test the tool

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Question # 16

Improving the Testing Process

Which of the following statements about the STEP test process improvement model is true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

In the STEP model, tests validate the requirements and use cases when they are developed

B.

The STEP model stresses defect detection and demonstration of capability, whereas the defect prevention is a secondary potential goal of testing

C.

The STEP model assures that the system requirements specification and the test design specification processes don't overlap

D.

In the STEP model, testware design occurs after coding

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Question # 17

Improving the Testing Process

Consider the following statements describing the importance of improving the test process:

I. Test process improvement is important because being focused only on the test process it can provide recommendations to improve the test process itself, but it can’t indicate or suggest improvement to areas of the development process

II. Test process improvement is important because it is much more effective than software process improvement to improve the quality of a software system

III. Test process improvement is important because several process improvement models (STEP, TPI Next, TMMi) have been developed over the years

IV. Test process improvement is important because every organization, regardless of the context, should always achieve the maximum level of maturity of testing described in the test improvement models such as TMMi

Which of the following answers is correct?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

I. and IV. are true; II. and III. are false

B.

I., II., III. and IV are false

C.

I., II. and III are true; IV. is false

D.

I., II. and III. are false; IV. is true

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Question # 18

Improving the Testing Process

Which of the following statements about the TMMi test process improvement model is true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

In TMMi all the process areas at lower levels must be 75% complete by achieving specific and generic goals in order to claim the higher level

B.

TMMi provides an approach for test process improvement such as the IDEAL (Initiating, Diagnosing, Establishing, Acting and Learning) model

C.

TMMi has a staged architecture for process improvement with seven maturity levels

D.

At TMMi level 1 testing is chaotic without a defined process, and it is often seen as the same as debugging

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Question # 19

People Skills – Team Composition

Which of the following would you expect to be most likely an example of a motivating factor for testers?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

The resources allocated for the testing activities are not sufficient and don’t allow the testers to contribute to the quality of the product

B.

The testers contribution to the quality of the software products developed from an organization is recognized with increased responsibilities

C.

The same regressions tests are executed manually by the same testers, for every product release, without any progression in content

D.

The testers are asked to perform, in parallel with their testing tasks, other tasks unrelated to their testing responsibilities

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Question # 20

You are using this skills assessment spreadsheet in order to define a training development plan for your test team.

Your objective is to fill the skill gaps by having at least a team member rated as an expert for each skill identified for the “technical expertise” and “testing skills” sections, and with the ability to train the other team members.

Considering the budget constraints you can send only one person to a training course.

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers would you expect to be the best option to achieve your objective?

Number of correct responses: 1

K43 credits

A.

Send Robert to a performance testing training course

B.

Send Alex to a performance testing training course

C.

Send John to a performance testing training course

D.

Send Mark to a test automation training course

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Question # 21

Test Tools and Automation

In your organization the following tools of the same vendor are currently in use: a requirements management tool, a test management tool and a bug tracking tool.

You are the Test Manager.

You are currently evaluating a test automation tool of the same vendor (to complete the vendor's tool suite) against an interesting open-source test automation tool under the GNU GPL (General Public License).

There are no initial costs associated to that open-source tool.

Which of the following statements associated to the selection of the open-source tool is correct in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

The open-source tool can be modified but only if the community of developers of that tool gives you the formal permission to modify it

B.

There are no initial costs for the open-source tool but you should carefully consider the costs associated to the integration with the existing tools and also evaluate the recurring costs

C.

There are no initial costs for the open-source tool because open-source tools are usually low-quality, while vendor tools have always a better quality than the corresponding open-source tools

D.

The open-source tool can be modified but it can’t be distributed further in any way

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Question # 22

Test Tools and Automation

Assume you are managing a test automation project for a mission-critical system.

Because vendor provided tools and open source solutions don't meet the needs of this project, you ask your test team to develop a custom automation framework.

Which of the following management issues associated to the development of this custom automation framework is least likely to manage?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

Proper testing for the custom automation framework must be performed

B.

The custom automation framework will require an adequate documentation

C.

The changes to the custom automation framework should be communicated to all external users of this tool under the GNU license

D.

The custom automation framework will need proper maintenance

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Question # 23

Test Tools and Automation

Assume you are the Test Manager in charge of independent testing for avionics applications.

You are in charge of testing for a project to implement three different CSCI (Computer Software Configuration Item):

- a BOOT-X CSCI that must be certified at level B of the DO-178B standard

- a DIAG-X CSCI that must be certified at level C of the DO-178B standard

- a DRIV-X CSCI that must be certified at level A of the DO-178B standard

These are three different software modules written in C language to run on a specific hardware platform.

You have been asked to select a single code coverage tool to perform the mandatory code coverage measurements, in order to meet the structural coverage criteria prescribed by the DO-178B standard. This tool must be qualified as a verification tool under DO-178B.

Since there are significant budget constraints to purchase this tool, you are evaluating an open-source tool that is able to provide different types of code coverage. This tool meets perfectly your technical needs in terms of the programming language and the specific hardware platform (it supports also the specific C-compiler).

The source code of the tool is available.

Your team could easily customize the tool to meet the project needs. This tool is not qualified as a verification tool under the DO-178B.

Which of the following are the three main concerns related to that open-source tool selection?

Number of correct responses: 3

K43 credits (2 credits out of 3 credits correct, 1 credit point)

A.

Does the tool support all the types of code coverage required from the three levels A, B, C of the DO-178B standard?

B.

Does the tool have a good general usability?

C.

What are the costs to qualify the tool as a verification tool under the DO-178B?

D.

Is the installation procedure of the tool easy?

E.

Does the tool require a system with more than 4GB of RAM memory?

F.

Is the licensing scheme of the tool compatible with the confidentiality needs of the avionics company?

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Question # 24

Test Tools and Automation

After a selection process you have selected a test management tool that is going be introduced in your organization and used by your test team in a pilot project.

You have already identified the member of your test team who will be the administrator of the tool, since he/she has a significant experience with the administration of test management tools and so he/she is able to make effective and efficient up-front decisions about "how" the tool will be used. You have also developed a training plan for the other members of your test team.

In collaboration with the administrator of the tool you have also devised standard ways of managing, storing and maintaining the tool and its assets including backup/restore procedures.

You have also analyzed standard formats supported by the tool (CSV, XLS, XML, etc.) to export, import and archive all the information managed by the tool itself (requirements, test case specifications, test plans etc.) for compliance with the most important test management tools, in order to minimize the impacts of migrating this information to a new tool that could replace the existing one in the future.

Which of the following phases in the lifecycle of the new tool has NOT been adequately considered in this description?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

Acquisition

B.

Support and maintenance

C.

Evolution

D.

Retirement

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Question # 25

Test Tools and Automation

Assume you are a Test Manager involved in system testing of a CRM application for a Pay-TV company. Currently the application is able to support a proper number of users assuring the required responsiveness. Since the business is expected to grow, you have been asked to evaluate the ability of the application to grow to support more users while maintaining the same responsiveness.

Which of the following tools would you expect to be the most useful at performing this evaluation?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

Coverage tools

B.

Test management tools

C.

Static analysis tools

D.

Performance tools

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Question # 26

Defect Management

Assume you are working on a defect management process to be used by a software organization to track the current status of the defects reports for several projects.

When a defect is found for investigation a defect report is created in “Opened” state that is the unique initial state. The defect report status has also a unique finale state that is the “Closed” state.

The following state transition diagram describes the states of this defect management process:

where only the initial (“Opened”) and final (“Closed”) states are indicated while the remaining states (V, W, X, Y, Z) have yet to be named.

Which of the following assignments would you expect to best complete the defect management process?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

A.

V=Rejected , W=Corrected , X=Validated, Y=Re-Opened, Z=Assigned

B.

V=Assigned, W=Validated , X=Corrected, Y=Re-Opened, Z=Rejected

C.

V=Assigned, W=Corrected , X=Validated, Y=Re-Opened, Z=Rejected

D.

V= Corrected, W=Assigned, X=Validated, Y=Corrected, Z=Rejected

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Question # 27

Defect Management

Which of the following information would you expect to be the most useful to perform a defect clustering analysis?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

The trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution

B.

The defect component information

C.

The lifecycle phase in which the defect has been introduced

D.

The defect removal efficiency information

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Question # 28

Defect Management

Consider a defect report and assume that a part of its lifecycle includes the following states:

New: Is the initial state

Working: Means that the developers are addressing the defect in order to produce a fix for the defect

Clarification: Means that the developers need more information from the tester to address the defect and produce a fix for the defect and the tester is working to provide this information to the developers

Verification: Means that a fix for the defect has been produced and the tester is running the adequate tests to verify whether the fix solves the defect

Closed: is the final state

Which of the following answers represents an invalid sequence of states that can’t lead the bug report to the “Closed” state?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

A.

New, Working, Verification, Working, Clarification, Working, Verification, Closed

B.

New, Working, Clarification, Working, Verification, Closed

C.

New, Working, Verification, Working, Clarification, Working, Closed

D.

New, Working, Verification, Closed

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Question # 29

Defect Management

During the system testing phase a tester from your test team observes a failure in the system under test and he/she decides to create an incident report. The incident report is currently in a “new” state, indicating it needs to be investigated.

Which THREE of the following information items can’t yet be present in the incident report?

Number of correct responses: 3

K32 credits (2 credits out of 3 credits correct, 1 credit point)

A.

The type of defect that caused the failure

B.

The actual and the expected result highlighting the failure

C.

The lifecycle phase in which the defect has been introduced

D.

What really caused the failure (actual cause)

E.

Steps to reproduce the failure, including screenshots, database dumps and logs where applicable

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Question # 30

Test Management

You are managing the system testing for a SOA based system. The integrated system consists of several subsystems:

- a SOA middleware

- a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system

- a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system

- a SMS (Subscriber Management System) system

and you performed a risk analysis based on these subsystems.

At the end of the scheduled period for test execution you produce a first classical report based on the traditional metrics of testing. Test pass/fail status and bug status (open/resolved) That table provides you a distorted picture of the quality risk, because there is no indication of the risk level of the failed tests, the tests not run, or the open bugs. Thus, you produce the following table to solve this distortion issue:

In the table above, where you have introduced the concept of risk weighting, the highest risk test or bug report has a score of 1, while the lowest risk test or bug report has a score of 0.04.

Which of the following subsystems, based on the risk scores of the table, is most risky?

Number of correct responses: 1

K43 credits

A.

SOA

B.

CRM

C.

BRM

D.

SMS

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