CSC2 Exam Dumps - Canadian Securities Course Exam 2

Model-based account management refers to discretionary accounts where advisors execute trades following a predefined model portfolio. Client consent is crucial as advisors must adhere to fiduciary responsibilities and ethical standards. This consent is typically obtained through agreements and clear disclosure documents when opening such accounts. The necessity for client approval ensures alignment with the investor ' s risk tolerance and financial objectives.

Tax loss selling and solicitation are unrelated to the operational mechanics of model-based accounts, while the emphasis on short-term use contradicts the long-term nature of these accounts.

An estate freeze is a strategy used to minimize future tax liability by freezing the value of an individual ' s assets at their current level and transferring future growth to others (e.g., family members). This helps lock in the current value for taxation purposes while passing on potential growth to the next generation without incurring immediate taxes.

Key Benefits of an Estate Freeze :

Ensures that future appreciation in asset value is taxed in the hands of beneficiaries rather than the original owner, typically at lower tax rates.

Facilitates succession planning by transferring control of assets to heirs.

Limits tax exposure while maintaining flexibility in estate planning.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect :

A : An estate freeze does not eliminate probate fees, though it may reduce taxable estate value.

B : Asset price volatility is unrelated to the purpose of an estate freeze.

C : While asset control may change, this is not the primary reason for an estate freeze.

Correlation measures how two securities move in relation to each other. A correlation of +1.0 means the two stocks move perfectly together, so diversification provides no reduction in variability. A correlation of 0.0 means there is no consistent relationship, which reduces some portfolio risk but does not eliminate variability. A correlation of +0.5 still shows a positive relationship, so risk reduction is limited. A correlation of -1.0 means the two securities move perfectly opposite to each other. In theory, if two assets have perfectly negative correlation and are properly weighted, one asset’s gain can offset the other asset’s loss, eliminating variability in total returns. Therefore, -1.0 is the correct answer.

The coupon rate of the bond remains fixed at 5%, as it is based on the bond ' s original par value of $100. The current yield, however, decreases because the bond ' s price has increased to $102.75. Current yield is calculated as:

Current Yield=Coupon PaymentCurrent Price\text{Current Yield} = \frac{\text{Coupon Payment}}{\text{Current Price}} Current Yield = Current PriceCoupon Payment ​

Given:

Coupon Payment = $5

Current Price = $102.75

Current Yield=5102.75≈4.87%\text{Current Yield} = \frac{5}{102.75} \approx 4.87\% Current Yield = 102.755 ​ ≈ 4.87%

A. The coupon is higher than 5%: The coupon remains fixed at 5%.

B. The current yield is higher than 5%: The current yield is lower than 5% due to the increased price.

D. The coupon is lower than 5%: The coupon does not change with the bond ' s price.