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IIA-ACCA Exam Dumps - ACCA CIA Challenge Exam

Question # 4

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

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Question # 5

Which of the following statements accurately describes an internal auditor's responsibility with regard to due professional care?

A.

An internal auditor should express an opinion only when consensus with top management has been achieved.

B.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on experience and free of all bias.

C.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on factual evidence.

D.

An internal auditor's opinion should be limited to the effectiveness of internal controls.

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Question # 6

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms.

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent.

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Question # 7

According to The IIA's Code of Ethics, which of the following statements is true?

A.

When an internal auditor releases required information to a regulator, resulting in a significant loss through fines and penalties for the organization, he fails to add value.

B.

When an internal auditor limits the scope of the audit engagement after learning that management is hiding relevant information, he demonstrates integrity.

C.

When an internal auditor disagrees with the treatment received by workers in the organization's foreign subsidiary and alters the audit program to highlight the issue, he fails to demonstrate objectivity.

D.

When an internal auditor continues with an audit engagement, despite the audit client's claims that the work performed is unnecessary and redundant he fails to demonstrate competency.

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Question # 8

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

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Question # 9

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Question # 10

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank's IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest.

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

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Question # 11

A former line supervisor from the Financial Services Department has completed six months of a two-year development opportunity with the internal audit activity (IAA). She is assigned to a team that will audit the organization's payroll function, which is managed by the Human Resources Department. Which of the following statements is most relevant regarding her independence and objectivity with respect to the payroll audit?

A.

She may participate, but only after she has completed one year with the IAA.

B.

She may participate, because she did not previously work in the Human Resources Department.

C.

She may participate, but she must be supervised by the auditor in charge.

D.

She may participate for training purposes, to build her knowledge of the IAA.

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Question # 12

A chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO and administratively to the chief financial officer, both of whom serve on the company's board of directors. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would offer the greatest protection for the independence of the internal audit activity?

A.

Appoint the CAE as a member of the board.

B.

Move the CAE's functional reporting to an executive who is not on the board.

C.

Obtain full board approval of the internal audit activity's annual audit plan.

D.

Move the CAE's functional reporting to the audit committee.

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Question # 13

The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning to conduct an internal assessment of the internal audit activity (IAA). Part of this assessment will include benchmarking. According to IIA guidance, which of the following qualitative metrics would be appropriate for the CAE to use?

1. Average client customer satisfaction score for a given year.

2. Client survey comments on how to improve the IAA.

3. Auditor interviews once an audit has been completed.

4. Percentage of audits completed within 90 days.

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Question # 14

Which two of the following are preventive controls in a check disbursement process?

1. Daily reconciliation of the bank account used for check disbursements and prompt follow-up of un-reconciled items.

2. Segregation of the following duties: establishing new vendors, approving checks, and reconciling the bank account.

3. An activity report detailing who accesses the check disbursement system and the nature of any action taken in the system.

4. Evidence of strong access controls ensuring that authorized individuals have access only to the functions related to their responsibilities.

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Question # 15

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Question # 16

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

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Question # 17

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about working papers is false?

A.

They assist in the implementation of recommendations.

B.

They provide support for communication to third parties.

C.

They demonstrate compliance with auditing standards.

D.

They contribute to development of the internal audit staff.

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Question # 18

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity's (IAA's) objectives?

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization's governance structure.

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Question # 19

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 20

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Question # 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

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Question # 22

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement's objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Question # 23

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements describes one of the similarities between assurance and consulting services?

A.

When planning assurance and consulting engagements, internal auditors must consider the strategies and objectives of the activity being reviewed.

B.

Internal auditors determine the engagement objectives, scope, and work program for both assurance and consulting services.

C.

Internal auditors must not provide assurance or consulting services for an activity for which they had responsibility within the previous year.

D.

Both assurance and consulting services generally involve the internal auditor, the area under review, senior management, and the board.

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Question # 25

Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for the board to take when developing an effective system of governance?

A.

Determine the organization's overall risk appetite.

B.

Establish a governance committee.

C.

Delegate authority to members of senior management.

D.

Identify key stakeholders and their expectations.

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Question # 26

A manufacturing line supervisor joins the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational job assignment and is assigned to an accounts receivable audit. With regard to this assignment, which of the following should be the primary concern of the audit manager?

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Individual independence.

C.

Individual objectivity.

D.

Organizational independence.

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Question # 27

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Question # 28

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Question # 29

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

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Question # 30

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

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Question # 31

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

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Question # 32

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 33

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Question # 34

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 35

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner's approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

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Question # 36

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

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Question # 37

Which of the following actions should the audit committee take to promote organizational independence for the internal audit activity?

A.

Delegate final approval of the risk-based internal audit plan to the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

Approve the annual budget and resource plan for the internal audit activity.

C.

Assist the CAE with hiring objective and competent internal audit staff.

D.

Encourage the CAE to communicate and coordinate with the external auditor.

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Question # 38

When developing the organization's first risk universe, which of the following would the chief audit executive be least likely to consider?

A.

The amount of risk that an organization is willing to seek or accept.

B.

The extent and degree of interdependency for identified key risks.

C.

The boundaries established to manage the amount of risk taken.

D.

The exposure to risks following management's risk responses.

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Question # 39

Which of the following combinations of conditions is most likely a red flag for fraud?

A.

The practice of surprise audits and the implementation of an employee support program.

B.

Hiring an employee with a prior fraud conviction and yearly management review.

C.

Occasional accounting department overrides and discontinuation of the anonymous fraud hotline due to infrequent use.

D.

A veteran employee in upper management experiencing financial difficulties and recently implemented enhanced controls.

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Question # 40

Which of the following best ensures the independence of the internal audit activity?

1. The CEO and audit committee review and endorse any changes to the approved audit plan on an annual basis.

2. The audit committee reviews the performance of the chief audit executive (CAE) periodically.

3. The internal audit charter requires the CAE to report functionally to the audit committee.

A.

3 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Question # 41

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Question # 42

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Question # 43

In which of the following functions would fraud be most likely to occur?

A.

Maintaining custody of inventory records.

B.

Collecting payments on accounts.

C.

Approving changes to employee records.

D.

Preparing customer statements.

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Question # 44

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

A.

Hedging against exchange rate variations.

B.

Limiting access to an organization's data center.

C.

Selling a nonstrategic business unit.

D.

Outsourcing a high-risk activity.

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Question # 45

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit.

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Question # 46

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Question # 47

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA's mandatory guidance on independence?

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The board seeks senior management's recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit activity.

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline.

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Question # 48

According to IIA guidance, which of the following external groups is most likely to represent a liability risk, based on activities associated with the organization's corporate social responsibility program?

A.

Consumers.

B.

Activists.

C.

Suppliers.

D.

Investors.

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Question # 49

The critical path for any project is the path that exhibits which of the following characteristics?

A.

Has the longest duration in time.

B.

Costs the most money.

C.

Requires the largest amount of labor

D.

Is deemed most important to the project.

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Question # 50

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for an industry that is in decline?

A.

Invest in marketing.

B.

Invest in research and development.

C.

Control costs.

D.

Shift toward mass production.

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Question # 51

Multinational organizations generally spend more time and effort to identify and evaluate:

A.

Internal strengths and weaknesses.

B.

Break-even points.

C.

External trends and events.

D.

Internal risk factors.

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Question # 52

When applied to international economics, the theory of comparative advantage proposes that total worldwide output will be greatest when:

A.

Each nation's total imports approximately equal its total exports.

B.

Each good is produced by the nation that has the lowest opportunity cost for that good.

C.

Goods that contribute to a nation's balance-of-payments deficit are no longer imported.

D.

International trade is unrestricted and tariffs are not imposed.

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Question # 53

Which of the following is the best reason for considering the acquisition of a nondomestic organization?

A.

Relatively fast market entry.

B.

Improved cash flow of the acquiring organization.

C.

Increased diversity of corporate culture.

D.

Opportunity to influence local government policy.

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Question # 54

Which of the following stages of group development is associated with accepting team responsibilities?

A.

Forming stage.

B.

Performing stage.

C.

Norming stage.

D.

Storming stage.

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Question # 55

Which of the following statements regarding database management systems is not correct?

A.

Database management systems handle data manipulation inside the tables, rather than it being done by the operating system itself in files.

B.

The database management system acts as a layer between the application software and the operating system.

C.

Applications pass on the instructions for data manipulation which are then executed by the database management system.

D.

The data within the database management system can only be manipulated directly by the database management system administrator.

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Question # 56

In an organization where enterprise risk management practices are mature, which of the following is a core internal audit role?

A.

Giving assurance that risks are evaluated correctly.

B.

Developing the risk management strategy for the board's approval.

C.

Facilitating the identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Coaching management in responding to risk.

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Question # 57

Where complex problems need to be addressed, which of the following communication networks would be most appropriate?

A.

Chain.

B.

All-channel.

C.

Circle.

D.

Wheel.

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Question # 58

If legal or regulatory standards prohibit conformance with certain parts of The IIA's Standards, the auditor should do which of the following?

A.

Conform with all other parts of The IIA's Standards and provide appropriate disclosures.

B.

Conform with all other parts of The IIA's Standards; there is no need to provide appropriate disclosures.

C.

Continue the engagement without conforming with the other parts of The IIA's Standards.

D.

Withdraw from the engagement.

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Question # 59

Which of the following costs would be incurred in an inventory stockout?

A.

Lost sales, lost customers, and backorder.

B.

Lost sales, safety stock, and backorder.

C.

Lost customers, safety stock, and backorder.

D.

Lost sales, lost customers, and safety stock.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is not a potential area of concern when an internal auditor places reliance on spreadsheets developed by users?

A.

Increasing complexity over time.

B.

Interface with corporate systems.

C.

Ability to meet user needs.

D.

Hidden data columns or worksheets.

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Question # 61

Division A produces a product with a variable cost of $5 per unit and an allocated fixed cost of S3 per unit The market price of the product is S15 plus 20 percent selling cost. Division B currently purchases this product from an external supplier but is going to purchase it from division A for S18 Which of the following methods of transfer pricing is being used?

A.

Market price.

B.

Negotiation-based.

C.

Full absorption cost

D.

Variable cost

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Question # 62

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor take during an audit of an organization's business continuity plans?

1. Evaluate the business continuity plans for adequacy and currency.

2. Prepare a business impact analysis regarding the loss of critical business.

3. Identify key personnel who will be required to implement the plans.

4. Identify and prioritize the resources required to support critical business processes.

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 63

Which of the following describes the most appropriate set of tests for auditing a workstation's logical access controls?

A.

Review the list of people with access badges to the room containing the workstation and a log of those who accessed the room.

B.

Review the password length, frequency of change, and list of users for the workstation's login process.

C.

Review the list of people who attempted to access the workstation and failed, as well as error messages.

D.

Review the passwords of those who attempted unsuccessfully to access the workstation and the log of their activity.

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Question # 64

Which of the following describes the free trade zone in an e-commerce environment?

A.

Zone that separates an organization's servers from outside forces.

B.

Area in which messages are scrutinized to determine if they are authorized.

C.

Area where communication and transactions occur between trusted parties.

D.

Zone where data is encrypted, users are authenticated, and user traffic is filtered.

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Question # 65

The decision to implement enhanced failure detection and back-up systems to improve data integrity is an example of which risk response?

A.

Risk acceptance.

B.

Risk sharing.

C.

Risk avoidance.

D.

Risk reduction.

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Question # 66

Which of the following IT-related activities is most commonly performed by the second line of defense?

A.

Block unauthorized traffic.

B.

Encrypt data.

C.

Review disaster recovery test results.

D.

Provide independent assessment of IT security.

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Question # 67

Which of the following methods, if used in conjunction with electronic data interchange (EDI), will improve the organization's cash management program, reduce transaction data input time and errors, and allow the organization to negotiate discounts with EDI vendors based on prompt payment?

A.

Electronic funds transfer.

B.

Knowledge-based systems.

C.

Biometrics.

D.

Standardized graphical user interface.

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Question # 68

Which of the following statements is true regarding the capital budgeting procedure known as discounted payback period?

A.

It calculates the overall value of a project

B.

It ignores the time value of money

C.

It calculates the time a project takes to break even.

D.

It begins at time zero for the project.

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Question # 69

Which of the following techniques would be least effective in resolving the conflict created by an internal audit client's perception of the audit report as a personal attack on his management performance?

A.

The auditor should focus on the audit client as a person and understand him, rather than just concentrating on the problem.

B.

The auditor should make recommendations based on objective criteria, rather than based on a subjective assessment.

C.

The auditor should explore alternative solutions to address the audit problem, so the audit client has options.

D.

The auditor should take a flexible position on the recommendations and focus on resolving the issue by addressing the interests of the people concerned.

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Question # 70

According to MA guidance on IT. which of the following would be considered a primary control for a spreadsheet to help ensure accurate financial reporting?

A.

Formulas and static data are locked or protected.

B.

The spreadsheet is stored on a network server that is backed up daily.

C.

The purpose and use of the spreadsheet are documented.

D.

Check-in and check-out software is used to control versions.

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Question # 71

An organization has instituted a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) work environment Which of the following policies best addresses the increased risk to the organization's network incurred by this environment?

A.

Limit the use of the employee devices for personal use to mitigate the risk of exposure to organizational data.

B.

Ensure that relevant access to key applications is strictly controlled through an approval and review process

C.

Institute detection and authentication controls for all devices used for network connectivity and data storage

D.

Use management software to scan and then prompt patch reminders when devices connect to the network

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Question # 72

Which of the following application controls checks the integrity of data entered into a business application?

A.

Input controls.

B.

Output controls

C.

Processing controls

D.

Integrity controls

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Question # 73

Capacity overbuilding is most likely to occur when management is focused on which of the following?

A.

Marketing.

B.

Finance.

C.

Production.

D.

Diversification.

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Question # 74

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked to participate in the selection of an external auditor. Which of the following would not be a typical responsibility for the CAE?

A.

Evaluate the proposed external auditor fee.

B.

Recommend criteria to be used in the selection process.

C.

Develop appropriate performance metrics.

D.

Monitor the work of the external auditors.

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Question # 75

An organization is beginning to implement an enterprise risk management program. One of the first steps is to develop a common risk language. Which of the following statements about a common risk language is true?

A.

Management will be able to reduce inherent risk because they will have a better understanding of risk.

B.

Internal auditors will be able to reduce their sample sizes because controls will be more consistent.

C.

Stakeholders will have more assurance that the risks are assessed consistently.

D.

Decision makers will understand that the likelihood of missing or ineffective controls will be reduced.

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Question # 76

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Question # 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 78

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Question # 79

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

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Question # 80

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

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Question # 81

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Question # 82

An internal auditor wants to determine whether employees are complying with the information security policy, which prohibits leaving sensitive information on employee desks overnight. The auditor checked a sample of 90 desks and found eight that contained sensitive information. How should this observation be reported, if the organization tolerates 4 percent noncompliance?

A.

The matter does not need to be reported, because the noncompliant findings fall within the acceptable tolerance limit.

B.

The deviations are within the acceptable tolerance limit, so the matter only needs to be reported to the information security manager.

C.

The incidents of noncompliance fall outside the acceptable tolerance limit and require immediate corrective action, as opposed to reporting.

D.

The incidents of noncompliance exceed the tolerance level and should be included in the final engagement report.

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Question # 83

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

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Question # 84

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

A.

Express an opinion on the participants' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

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Question # 85

Which of the following application software features is the least effective control to protect passwords?

A.

Suspension of user IDs after a user's repeated attempts to sign on with an invalid password.

B.

Encryption of passwords prior to their transmission or storage.

C.

Forced change of passwords after a designated number of days.

D.

Automatic logoff of inactive users after a specified time period of inactivity.

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Question # 86

When granting third parties temporary access to an entity's computer systems, which of the following is the most effective control?

A.

Access is approved by the supervising manager.

B.

User accounts specify expiration dates and are based on services provided.

C.

Administrator access is provided for a limited period.

D.

User accounts are deleted when the work is completed.

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Question # 87

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment.

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Question # 88

An internal auditor in a small broadcasting organization was assigned to review the revenue collection process. The auditor discovered that some checks from three customers were never recorded in the organization's financial records. Which of the following documents would be the least useful for the auditor to verify the finding?

A.

Bank statements.

B.

Customer confirmation letters.

C.

Copies of sales invoices.

D.

Copies of deposit slips.

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Question # 89

An internal auditor is reviewing physical and environmental controls for an IT organization. Which control activity should not be part of this review?

A.

Develop and test the organization's disaster recovery plan.

B.

Install and test fire detection and suppression equipment.

C.

Restrict access to tangible IT resources.

D.

Ensure that at least one developer has access to both systems and operations.

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Question # 90

In order to provide useful information for an organization's risk management decisions, which of the following factors is least important to assess?

A.

The underlying causes of the risk.

B.

The impact of the risk on the organization's objectives.

C.

The risk levels of current and future events.

D.

The potential for eliminating risk factors.

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