Weekend Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: scxmas70

CTPRP Exam Dumps - Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP)

Question # 4

The BEST way to manage Fourth-Nth Party risk is:

A.

Include a provision in the vender contract requiring the vendor to provide notice and obtain written consent before outsourcing any service

B.

Include a provision in the contract prohibiting the vendor from outsourcing any service which includes access to confidential data or systems

C.

Incorporate notification and approval contract provisions for subcontracting that require evidence of due diligence as defined by a TPRM program

D.

Require the vendor to maintain a cyber-insurance policy for any service that is outsourced which includes access to confidential data or systems

Full Access
Question # 5

In which phase of the TPRM lifecycle should terms for return or destruction of data be defined and agreed upon?

A.

During contract negotiation

B.

At third party selection and initial due diligence

C.

When deploying ongoing monitoring

D.

At termination and exit

Full Access
Question # 6

Which statement provides the BEST description of inherent risk?

A.

inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can incur when there is an absence of controls

B.

Inherent risk is the level of risk triggered by outsourcing & product or service

C.

Inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can accept based on their risk tolerance

D.

Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists with all of the necessary controls in place

Full Access
Question # 7

Which statement is FALSE regarding the foundational requirements of a well-defined third party risk management program?

A.

We conduct onsite or virtual assessments for all third parties

B.

We have defined senior and executive management accountabilities for oversight of our TPRM program

C.

We have established vendor risk ratings and classifications based on a tiered hierarchy

D.

We have established Management and Board-level reporting to enable risk-based decisionmaking

Full Access
Question # 8

Which of the following BEST reflects the risk of a ‘shadow IT" function?

A.

“Shadow IT" functions often fail to detect unauthorized use of information assets

B.

“Shadow IT" functions often lack governance and security oversight

C.

inability to prevent "shadow IT’ functions from using unauthorized software solutions

D.

Failure to implement strong security controls because IT is executed remotely

Full Access
Question # 9

Physical access procedures and activity logs should require all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Require multiple access controls for server rooms and data centers

B.

Require physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes

C.

Record successful and unsuccessful attempts including investigation of unsuccessful access attempts

D.

Include a process to trigger review of the logs after security events

Full Access
Question # 10

An IT change management approval process includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

A.

Application version control standards for software release updates

B.

Documented audit trail for all emergency changes

C.

Defined roles between business and IT functions

D.

Guidelines that restrict approval of changes to only authorized personnel

Full Access
Question # 11

Which of the following statements BEST represent the relationship between incident response and incident notification plans?

A.

Cybersecurity incident response programs have the same scope and objectives as privacy incident notification procedures

B.

All privacy and security incidents should be treated alike until analysis is performed to quantify the number of records impacted

C.

Security incident response management is only included in crisis communication for externally reported events

D.

A security incident may become a security breach based upon analysis and trigger the organization's incident notification or crisis communication process

Full Access
Question # 12

Which of the following actions reflects the first step in developing an emergency response plan?

A.

Conduct an assessment that includes an inventory of the types of events that have the greatest potential to trigger an emergency response plan

B.

Consider work-from-home parameters in the emergency response plan

C.

incorporate periodic crisis management team tabletop exercises to test different scenarios

D.

Use the results of continuous monitoring tools to develop the emergency response plan

Full Access
Question # 13

You are updating program requirements due to shift in use of technologies by vendors to enable hybrid work. Which statement is LEAST likely to represent components of an Asset

Management Program?

A.

Asset inventories should include connections to external parties, networks, or systems that process data

B.

Each asset should include an organizational owner who is responsible for the asset throughout its life cycle

C.

Assets should be classified based on criticality or data sensitivity

D.

Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines

Full Access
Question # 14

An organization has experienced an unrecoverable data loss event after restoring a system. This is an example of:

A.

A failure to conduct a Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

B.

A failure to meet the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

C.

A failure to meet the Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO)

D.

A failure to meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

Full Access
Question # 15

Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?

A.

The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier

B.

Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control

C.

Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated

D.

All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment

Full Access
Question # 16

When working with third parties, which of the following requirements does not reflect a “Zero Trust" approach to access management?

A.

Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network

B.

Ensure that access is granted on a per session basis regardless of network location, user, or device

C.

Implement device monitoring, continual inspection and monitoring of logs/traffic

D.

Require that all communication is secured regardless of network location

Full Access
Question # 17

An outsourcer's vendor risk assessment process includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Establishing risk evaluation criteria based on company policy

B.

Developing risk-tiered due diligence standards

C.

Setting remediation timelines based on the severity level of findings

D.

Defining assessment frequency based on resource capacity

Full Access
Question # 18

An IT asset management program should include all of the following components EXCEPT:

A.

Maintaining inventories of systems, connections, and software applications

B.

Defining application security standards for internally developed applications

C.

Tracking and monitoring availability of vendor updates and any timelines for end of support

D.

Identifying and tracking adherence to IT asset end-of-life policy

Full Access
Question # 19

Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?

A.

Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties

B.

Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)

C.

Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements

D.

Change at outsourcer due to M&A

Full Access
Question # 20

Which of the following BEST reflects components of an environmental controls testing program?

A.

Scheduling testing of building access and intrusion systems

B.

Remote monitoring of HVAC, Smoke, Fire, Water or Power

C.

Auditing the CCTV backup process and card-key access process

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of personnel access controls and building intrusion systems

Full Access
Question # 21

When conducting an assessment of a third party's physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a ‘Defense in Depth’ model?

A.

Public internal

B.

Restricted entry

C.

Private internal

D.

Public external

Full Access
Question # 22

Which vendor statement provides the BEST description of the concept of least privilege?

A.

We require dual authorization for restricted areas

B.

We grant people access to the minimum necessary to do their job

C.

We require separation of duties for performance of high risk activities

D.

We limit root and administrator access to only a few personnel

Full Access
Question # 23

Which statement is TRUE regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) in payment card processing?

A.

The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework should be used to scope the assessment

B.

The Report on Compliance (ROC) provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor that includes an onsite audit

C.

The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) provides independent testing of controls

D.

A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report is sufficient if the report addresses the same location

Full Access
Question # 24

Which activity BEST describes conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor?

A.

Accepting a service providers self-assessment questionnaire responses

B.

Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities

C.

Reviewing a service provider's self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s)

D.

Requesting and filing a service provider's external audit report(s) for future reference

Full Access
Question # 25

Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Maintenance of artifacts that provide proof that SOLC gates are executed

B.

Process for data destruction and disposal

C.

Software security testing

D.

Process for fixing security defects

Full Access
Question # 26

Which statement BEST reflects the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments?

A.

Vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and then be replaced by continuous monitoring

B.

Vendor assessment frequency should be based on the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to your operations as determined by their vendor risk score

C.

Vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services/products provided

D.

Vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach

Full Access
Question # 27

Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

A.

Infrastructure as a Service

B.

Software as a Service

C.

Function a3 a Service

D.

Platform as a Service

Full Access
Question # 28

Which statement does NOT reflect current practice in addressing fourth party risk or subcontracting risk?

A.

Third party contracts and agreements should require prior notice and approval for subcontracting

B.

Outsourcers should rely on requesting and reviewing external audit reports to address subcontracting risk

C.

Outsourcers should inspect the vendor's TPRM program and require evidence of the assessments of subcontractors

D.

Third party contracts should include capturing, maintaining, and tracking authorized subcontractors

Full Access
Question # 29

Which of the following would be a component of an arganization’s Ethics and Code of Conduct Program?

A.

Participation in the company's annual privacy awareness program

B.

A disciplinary process for non-compliance with key policies, including formal termination or change of status process based on non-compliance

C.

Signing acknowledgement of Acceptable Use policy for use of company assets

D.

A process to conduct periodic access reviews of critical Human Resource files

Full Access
Question # 30

Which of the following factors is MOST important when assessing the risk of shadow IT in organizational security?

A.

The organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions

B.

The organization requires security training and certification for security personnel

C.

The organization defines staffing levels to address impact of any turnover in security roles

D.

The organization's resources and investment are sufficient to meet security requirements

Full Access
Question # 31

Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?

A.

The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan

B.

The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately

C.

The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor

D.

The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report

Full Access
Question # 32

Which statement is FALSE regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements?

A.

Organizations include TPRM compliance requirements within vendor contracts, and periodically review and update mandatory contract provisions

B.

Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements

C.

Organizations incorporate the use of external standards and frameworks to align and map TPRM compliance requirements to industry practice

D.

Organizations define TPRM policies based on the company’s risk appetite to shape requirements based on the services being outsourced

Full Access
Question # 33

Which statement is FALSE regarding the methods of measuring third party risk?

A.

Risk can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively

B.

Risk can be quantified by calculating the severity of impact and likelihood of occurrence

C.

Assessing risk impact requires an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends to analyze and predict the potential of a particular event happening

D.

Risk likelihood or probability is a critical element in quantifying inherent or residual risk

Full Access
Question # 34

Which statement provides the BEST example of the purpose of scoping in third party assessments?

A.

Scoping is used to reduce the number of questions the vendor has to complete based on vendor “classification

B.

Scoping is the process an outsourcer uses to configure a third party assessment based on the risk the vendor presents to the organization

C.

Scoping is an assessment technique only used for high risk or critical vendors that require on-site assessments

D.

Scoping is used primarily to limit the inclusion of supply chain vendors in third party assessments

Full Access
Question # 35

Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?

A.

Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight

B.

Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management

C.

Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes

D.

Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework

Full Access
Question # 36

Which of the following components is NOT typically included in external continuous monitoring solutions?

A.

Status updates on localized events based on geolocation

B.

Alerts on legal and regulatory actions involving the vendor

C.

Metrics that track SLAs for performance management

D.

Reports that identify changes in vendor financial viability

Full Access
Question # 37

For services with system-to-system access, which change management requirement

MOST effectively reduces the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer?

A.

Approval of the change by the information security department

B.

Documenting sufficient time for quality assurance testing

C.

Communicating the change to customers prior ta deployment to enable external acceptance testing

D.

Documenting and legging change approvals

Full Access