8006 Exam Dumps - Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition

The Sharpe ratio is the ratio of excess returns to risk. Excess returns are measured as the returns over the risk-free rate, and risk is measured in terms of volatility, ie standard deviation. Two portfolios with identical Sharpe ratios will certainly have the same ratio of risk and return, though the absolute levels of the return and the risk may vary. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

The basis point value is equal to $102 x 5 /10000 = $0.051. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

The basis point value, also called the PV01, is the dollar value change in the price of a bond as a result of a 1 basis point (=1/10000) change in interest rates. Since the modified duration is 5, it means a 1% change in interest rates produces a 5% change in the price of the bond, and a 1 bps change will therefore produce a 0.05% change in the value of the bond. Since the bond is currently valued at $102, the change works out to $102 x 0.05% = $0.051.

A utility function is graphed with utility on the y-axis and the variable driving utility (generally wealth) along the x-axis.

A concave utility function, ie a function with a downward sloping curve, indicates risk aversion. A convex utility function indicates a risk seeking attitude and a straight line (ie no curvature) indicates a risk neutral attitude.

The tax advantage of debt is an important input into a decision on the financial structure of a firm. Increasing debt increases the fixed expenses of a business that must be paid out of current cash flows, thereby increasing the cost of financial distress. CFOs consider the volatility of their earnings, outlook for the future and the possibility of financial distress at varying levels of debt, so that certainly is an input into the debt-equity tradeoff. Holding higher levels of equity increases financial flexibility for financing new investments or acquisitions, and depending upon their plans for such activities, they may decide to hold a certain level of equity versus debt.

The agency costs of equity refer to the cost to shareholders arising from the management acting in its own interest rather than that of shareholders - and this is irrelevant to a decision on capital structure. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

The vast majority of exchange traded futures contracts are closed out prior to expiry by the parties acquiring offsetting positions. Very few contracts are settled by delivery. Since P&L on futures contracts is settled daily, 'cash settlement' really does not mean much as only the previous day's P&L is due or receivable on any given day.

Credit derivatives can indeed be used for reducing credit exposures, earning credit risk premiums and getting market exposure without taking cash market positions. They cannot be used for reducing interest rate risks, as they pay out only when agreed 'credit events' take place. Changes in interest rates are not a credit event. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

The existence of derivative markets actually drives liquidity out of cash markets into derivative markets. Derivative markets are far more liquid than cash markets. Therefore statement I is not correct.

In times of crises, instruments or financial products bearing greater credit risk lose liquidity rapidly. Therefore statement II is correct.

A higher bid-ask spread indicates lower liquidity, not greater liquidity. Therefore statement III is false.

Normal market size (NMS) refers the 'normal' transaction size for which a dealer's quote is valid. A higher NMS is associated with greater liquidity, therefore statement IV is correct.

The investor would benefit from the risk reversal and the bull spread as both these strategies have a payoff profile that benefit from rising prices of the underlying. The collar is the opposite of risk reversal, and benefits during a bear market, and the butterfly spread benefits when prices remain range bound. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.