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156-215.81 Exam Dumps - Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81

Question # 4

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

A.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

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Question # 5

What are the types of Software Containers?

A.

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

C.

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

D.

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

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Question # 6

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Question # 7

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

A.

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

B.

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

C.

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers.

D.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

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Question # 8

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

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Question # 9

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

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Question # 10

John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

A.

Logout of the session

B.

File > Save

C.

Install database

D.

Publish the session

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Question # 11

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Question # 12

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

  • Route-based— The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTls. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

A.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

B.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

C.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

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Question # 13

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

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Question # 14

What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

A.

Verification tool

B.

Verification licensing

C.

Automatic licensing

D.

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

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Question # 15

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

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Question # 16

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

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Question # 17

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

A.

Security Gateway Contract file

B.

Service Contract file

C.

License Management file

D.

License Contract file

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Question # 18

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

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Question # 19

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

A.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

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Question # 20

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

A.

print cplic

B.

show licenses

C.

fwlic print

D.

cplic print

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Question # 21

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

A.

license view

B.

fw ctl tab -t license -s

C.

show license -s

D.

cplic print

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Question # 22

What is the order of NAT priorities?

A.

IP pool NAT static NAT. hide NAT

B.

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

C.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

D.

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

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Question # 23

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

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Question # 24

What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole’s tab, and the Install Policy within a specific policy?

A.

The Global one also saves and published the session before installation.

B.

The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.

C.

The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.

D.

The second one pre-select the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

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Question # 25

When should you generate new licenses?

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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Question # 26

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

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Question # 27

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

A.

Publish database

B.

Activate policy

C.

Install policy

D.

Save changes

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Question # 28

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

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Question # 29

When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

A.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

B.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

C.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

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Question # 30

Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

A.

Distributed

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Remote

D.

Standalone

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Question # 31

Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

A.

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fwaccel stats

D.

fw ctl templates –d

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Question # 32

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

A.

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

B.

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

C.

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

D.

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

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Question # 33

You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

A.

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

B.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

C.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

D.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

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Question # 34

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

A.

Formal

B.

Central

C.

Corporate

D.

Local

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Question # 35

Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

A.

Access Control Policy.

B.

Desktop Firewall Policy

C.

Mobile Access Policy.

D.

Threat Prevention Policy.

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Question # 36

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

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Question # 37

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

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Question # 38

What command would show the API server status?

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Question # 39

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

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Question # 40

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

A.

Cloud/data Center

B.

perimeter

C.

Sandbox

D.

Guest Network

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Question # 41

What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

A.

High Performance

B.

Good Security

C.

No Screening above Network layer

D.

Transparency

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Question # 42

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

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Question # 43

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

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Question # 44

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Question # 45

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

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Question # 46

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

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Question # 47

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

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Question # 48

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

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Question # 49

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

A.

User Center

B.

Package repository

C.

Download Center Web site

D.

License and Contract repository

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Question # 50

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

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Question # 51

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Question # 52

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

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Question # 53

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

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Question # 54

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Question # 55

When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

A.

Log, send snmp trap, email

B.

Drop packet, alert, none

C.

Log, alert, none

D.

Log, allow packets, email

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Question # 56

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A.

Inspection Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Unified Policies

D.

Standard Policies

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Question # 57

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

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Question # 58

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

A.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

B.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

C.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

D.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

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Question # 59

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

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Question # 60

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

A.

cat $FWDlR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

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Question # 61

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

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Question # 62

In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

A.

"Inspect", "Bypass"

B.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

C.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

D.

"Detect", "Bypass"

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Question # 63

AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

A.

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published

B.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the rule is currently being edited

C.

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available

D.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the save button has not been pressed

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Question # 64

Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

A.

Static; source

B.

Simple; source

C.

Hide; destination

D.

Hide; source

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Question # 65

Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

A.

STATE Engine

B.

TRACK Engine

C.

RECORD Engine

D.

INSPECT Engine

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Question # 66

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

A.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

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Question # 67

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Question # 68

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Question # 69

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Question # 70

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

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Question # 71

There are four policy types available for each policy package. What are those policy types?

A.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection

B.

Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NAT.

D.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection

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Question # 72

Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

A.

the user connects and authenticates

B.

office mode is initiated

C.

the user requests a connection

D.

the user connects

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Question # 73

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

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Question # 74

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

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Question # 75

Log query results can be exported to what file format?

A.

Word Document (docx)

B.

Comma Separated Value (csv)

C.

Portable Document Format (pdf)

D.

Text (txt)

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Question # 76

The CDT utility supports which of the following?

A.

Major version upgrades to R77.30

B.

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

C.

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

D.

All upgrades

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Question # 77

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

A.

The Security Gateway is upgraded.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

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Question # 78

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

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Question # 79

When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

A.

First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile

B.

First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.

C.

First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

D.

The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.

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Question # 80

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

A.

Access Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Threat Prevention

D.

QoS

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Question # 81

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

A.

Down

B.

No Response

C.

Inactive

D.

Failed

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Question # 82

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 83

What is the SOLR database for?

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

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Question # 84

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

A.

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

B.

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

C.

Track log column is set to none.

D.

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

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Question # 85

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

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Question # 86

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

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Question # 87

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

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Question # 88

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

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Question # 89

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

C.

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

D.

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

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Question # 90

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

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Question # 91

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartEvent

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartUpdate

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Question # 92

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

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Question # 93

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Question # 94

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

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Question # 95

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

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Question # 96

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

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Question # 97

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 98

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

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Question # 99

Aggressive Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

A.

6

B.

3

C.

depends on the make of the peer gateway

D.

5

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Question # 100

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

A.

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

B.

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

C.

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

D.

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

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Question # 101

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A.

add rba user roles

B.

add user

C.

add rba user

D.

add user roles

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Question # 102

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Security Gateway container

C.

Management server

D.

Management container

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Question # 103

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

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Question # 104

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

Security questions

D.

SecurID

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Question # 105

How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw monitor

D.

cpinfo

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Question # 106

Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

A.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

B.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.

C.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

D.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish the policy.

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Question # 107

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

A.

Penalty Box

B.

Drop Rule in the rulebase

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

D.

Stealth rule

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Question # 108

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Question # 109

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

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Question # 110

Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

A.

CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine

B.

CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine

C.

CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service

D.

CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

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Question # 111

Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

A.

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

B.

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

C.

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

D.

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

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Question # 112

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 113

In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

A.

Manage and Settings

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateways and Servers

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Question # 114

What command would show the API server status?

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Question # 115

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

A.

Manage & Settings

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway & Servers

D.

Logs & Monitor

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Question # 116

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

A.

On the Policy Package

B.

On each Security Gateway

C.

On the Policy layer

D.

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

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Question # 117

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

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